Cybersecurity Act, 2020 (Act 1038)
This section says the Act applies to cybersecurity activities in the country.
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Statute overview
About this statute
This section says the Act applies to cybersecurity activities in the country. This section establishes the Cyber Security Authority as a body corporate and gives it power to handle property and contracts. The Authority’s objects are to regulate and coordinate cybersecurity activities, including threats, incidents, critical information infrastructure, awareness, and collaboration. The Authority must carry out cybersecurity governance functions such as advising, monitoring threats, setting standards, certifying products and services, issuing licences, and supporting incident response. The Authority’s governing body is a Board made up of specified ministers, the Director-General, Industry Forum nominees, and other presidential appointees; the President also nominates the chairperson and appoints the Board members.
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Legal text
Provisions of Cybersecurity Act, 2020 (Act 1038)
Showing 97 of 97
- 1 Verify source ↗
Application Cyber Security Authority
AI-assisted research summary: This section says the Act applies to cybersecurity activities in the country.
Section 1—Application (1) This Act applies to cybersecurity activities in the country. (2) This Act shall be read together with other relevant enactments including the (a) Criminal Offences Act, 1960 (Act 29); (b) Evidence Act, 1975 (N.R.C.D. 323); (c) Foreign Exchange Act, 2006 (Act 723); (d) Anti-Money Laundering Act, 2008 (Act 749); (e) Anti-Terrorism Act, 2008 (Act 762); (f) Electronic Transactions Act, 2008 (Act 772); (g) Electronic Communications Act, 2008 (Act 775); (h) Economic and Organised Crime Office Act, 2010 (Act 804); (i) Mutual Legal Assistance Act, 2010 (Act 807); (j) Data Protection Act, 2012 (Act 843); and (k) Payment Systems and Services Act, 2019 (Act 987). Cyber Security Authority - 2 Verify source ↗
Establishment of the Cyber Security Authority
AI-assisted research summary: This section establishes the Cyber Security Authority as a body corporate and gives it power to handle property and contracts.
Section 2—Establishment of the Cyber Security Authority (1) There is established by this Act the Cyber Security Authority as a body corporate. (2) For the performance of functions, the Authority may acquire and hold property, dispose of property and enter into a contract or any other related transaction. (3) Where there is a hindrance to the acquisition of land, the land may be acquired for the Authority under the State Lands Act, 1962 (Act 125) and the cost shall be borne by the Authority. - 3 Verify source ↗
Objects of the Authority
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority’s objects are to regulate and coordinate cybersecurity activities, including threats, incidents, critical information infrastructure, awareness, and collaboration.
Section 3—Objects of the Authority The objects of the Authority are to (a) regulate cybersecurity activities in the country; (b) prevent, manage and respond to cybersecurity threats and cybersecurity incidents; (c) regulate owners of critical information infrastructure in respect of cybersecurity activities, cybersecurity service providers and practitioners in the country; (d) promote the development of cybersecurity in the country to ensure a secured and resilient digital ecosystem; (e) establish a platform for cross-sector engagement on matters of cybersecurity for effective co-ordination and co-operation between key public institutions and the private sector; (f) create awareness of cybersecurity matters; and (g) collaborate with international agencies to promote the cybersecurity of the country. - 4 Verify source ↗
Functions of the Authority Governance of the Authority
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must carry out cybersecurity governance functions such as advising, monitoring threats, setting standards, certifying products and services, issuing licences, and supporting incident response.
Section 4—Functions of the Authority To achieve the objects under section 3, the Authority shall (a) advise the Government and public institutions on all matters related to cybersecurity in the country; (b) promote the security of computers and computer systems in the country; (c) monitor cybersecurity threats within and outside the country; (d) establish codes of practice and standards for cybersecurity, and monitor compliance with the codes of practice and standards by the public and private sector owners of critical information infrastructure; (e) establish standards for certifying cybersecurity products or services; (f) certify cybersecurity products or services in accordance with the standards established pursuant to paragraph (e); (g) take measures in response to cybersecurity incidents that occur within and outside the country which may threaten (i) national security; (ii) the defence of the country; (iii) the economy of the country; (iv) international relations between the State and other countries; (v) health of the public; (vi) the safety of life and property; and (vii) any other sector of the country likely to be affected by a cybersecurity incident; (h) identify and designate critical information infrastructure and advise the Minister on the regulation of owners of critical information infrastructure to protect the critical information infrastructure of the country, in accordance with international best practice; (i) provide technical support for law enforcement agencies and security agencies to prosecute cyber offenders; (j) promote the protection of children online; (k) issue licences for the provision of cybersecurity services specified in the First Schedule; (l) establish standards for the provision of cybersecurity services specified in the First Schedule; (m) support technological advances and research and development in cybersecurity to ensure a resilient and sustainable digital ecosystem; (n) deploy strategies to implement research findings towards the promotion of the cybersecurity of the country; (o) establish and maintain a framework for disseminating information on cybersecurity; (p) submit periodic reports on the state of cybersecurity in the country to the Minister; (q) educate the public on matters related to cybercrime and cybersecurity; (r) build the capacity of persons in the public or private sector in matters related to cybersecurity; (s) collaborate with law enforcement agencies to intercept or disable a digital technology service or product whose operation undermines the cybersecurity of the country; (t) establish and maintain a national register of (i) identified and potential risks; (ii) the levels and impact of risks; (iii) owners of critical information infrastructure; and (iv) any other persons licensed or accredited to carry out cybersecurity activities; and (u) perform any other functions which are ancillary to the objects of the Authority. - 5 Verify source ↗
Governing body of the Authority
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority’s governing body is a Board made up of specified ministers, the Director-General, Industry Forum nominees, and other presidential appointees; the President also nominates the chairperson and appoints the Board members.
Section 5—Governance of the Authority Governing body of the Authority (1) The governing body of the Authority is a Board consisting of (a) the Ministers responsible for (i) Communications; (ii) the Interior; (iii) National Security; and (iv) Defence; (b) the Director-General of the Authority; (e) three persons from the Industry Forum nominated by the Industry Forum; and (d) three other persons nominated by the President on the advice of the Minister, at least two of whom are women. (2) The President shall nominate the Minister as chairperson of the Board. (3) The chairperson and other members of the Board shall be appointed by the President in accordance with article 70 of the Constitution. - 6 Verify source ↗
Functions of the Board
AI-assisted research summary: The Board must oversee the Authority, set its strategic direction and policies, manage and disburse the Cybersecurity Fund under section 30, and ensure the Authority performs its functions efficiently and effectively.
Section 6—Functions of the Board The Board shall, subject to the provisions of this Act, (a) have oversight responsibility for the Authority; (b) be responsible for the strategic direction and policies of the Authority; (c) manage and disburse the Cybersecurity Fund in accordance with section 30; and (d) ensure the efficient and effective performance of the functions of the Authority. - 7 Verify source ↗
Tenure of office of members of the Board
AI-assisted research summary: Board members serve for four years, may resign in writing, and can be removed or replaced when vacancies arise.
Section 7—Tenure of office of members of the Board (1) A member of the Board shall hold office for a period of four years and is eligible for re- appointment for another term only, (2) Subsection (1) does not apply to the Director-General. (3) A member of the Board, other than a member appointed under paragraph (a) or (b) of subsection (1) of section 5, may, at any time, resign from office in writing addressed to the President through the Minister. (4) A member of the Board who is absent from three consecutive meetings of the Board without sufficient cause ceases to be a member of the Board. (5) The President may, by a letter addressed to a member, revoke the appointment of the member. (6) Where a member of the Board is, for a sufficient reason, unable to act as a member, the Minister shall determine whether the inability may result in the declaration of a vacancy. (7) Where there is a vacancy (a) under subsection (3), (4) or (5) or subsection (2) of section 9; (b) as a result of a declaration under subsection (6); or (c) by reason of the death of a member, the Minister shall notify the President of the vacancy and the President shall, subject to section 5, appoint a person to fill the vacancy for the unexpired term. - 8 Verify source ↗
Meetings of the Board
AI-assisted research summary: The Board must meet at least quarterly. The chairperson must call extraordinary meetings on a written request from at least one-third of members, preside at meetings, and may determine time and place; a substitute member may preside if the chairperson is absent. A co-opted attendee may not vote.
Section 8—Meetings of the Board (1) The Board shall meet at least once every quarter for the conduct of business at a time and place determined by the chairperson. (2) The chairperson shall, at the request in writing of not less than one-third of the membership of the Board, convene an extraordinary meeting of the Board, at a time and place determined by the chairperson. (3) The chairperson shall preside at meetings of the Board and in the absence of the chairperson, a member of the Board, other than the Director-General, elected by the members present from among their number shall preside. (4) The quorum at a meeting of the Board is seven members of the Board. (5) Matters before the Board shall be decided by the majority of the members present and voting and in the event of an equality of votes, the person presiding shall have a casting vote. (6) The Board may co-opt a person to attend a meeting of the Board but that person shall not vote on any matter for decision at the meeting. (7) The validity of any proceedings of the Board shall not be affected by a vacancy among the members of the Board or by a defect in the appointment or qualification of a member. (8) The Board shall, subject to this section regulate the procedure for the meetings of the Board. - 9 Verify source ↗
Disclosure of interest
AI-assisted research summary: A Board member with an interest in a matter must disclose it in writing and must not take part in the Board’s deliberations on that matter.
Section 9—Disclosure of interest (1) A member of the Board who has an interest in a matter for consideration by the Board (a) shall disclose in writing the nature of that interest and the disclosure shall form part of the record of the consideration of the matter; and (b) is disqualified from being present at or participating in the deliberations of the Board in respect of that matter. (2) Where a member contravenes subsection (1), the chairperson shall inform the President in writing to revoke the appointment of the member. (3) Without limiting any further cause of action that may be instituted against the member, the Board shall recover any benefit derived by a member who contravenes subsection (1). - 10 Verify source ↗
Establishment of committees
AI-assisted research summary: The Board may set up committees. Mixed committees must be chaired by a Board member, and committees made up only of non-members are advisory.
Section 10—Establishment of committees (1) The Board may establish committees consisting of members of the Board and non- members or both, to perform a function of the Board. (2) A committee of the Board composed of members and non-members shall be chaired by a member of the Board. (3) A committee of the Board composed of non-members only shall be advisory. (4) Section 9 applies to a member of a committee of the Board. - 11 Verify source ↗
Allowances
AI-assisted research summary: Board members and committee members are to be paid allowances set by the Minister, after consulting the Minister responsible for Finance.
Section 11—Allowances Members of the Board and members of a committee of the Board shall be paid allowances determined by the Minister in consultation with the Minister responsible for Finance. - 12 Verify source ↗
Policy directives
AI-assisted research summary: The Minister may issue written policy directives to the Board, and the Board must comply.
Section 12—Policy directives To achieve the object of this Act, the Minister may give directives in writing on matters of policy to the Board and the Board shall comply. - 13 Verify source ↗
Joint Cybersecurity Committee
AI-assisted research summary: This section establishes the Joint Cybersecurity Committee and sets rules for its membership, meetings, quorum, voting, allowances, sub-committees, and secretariat.
Section 13—Joint Cybersecurity Committee (1) There is established by this Act a Joint Cybersecurity Committee. (2) The Joint Cybersecurity Committee consists of (a) a Justice of the Superior Court of Judicature with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Chief Justice; (b) the Director-General of the National Information Technology Agency or a representative of the Director-General with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Director-General; (c) the Director-General of the National Communications Authority or a representative of the Director-General with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Director-General; (d) the Executive Director of the Data Protection Commission or a representative of the Executive Director with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Executive Director; (e) the Governor of the Bank of Ghana or a representative of the Governor with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Governor; (f) the Chief Executive Officer of the Financial Intelligence Centre or a representative of the Chief Executive Officer with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Chief Executive Officer; (g) the Director of the Bureau of National Investigations or a representative of the Director with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Director; (h) the Executive Director of the Economic and Organised Crime Office or a representative of the Executive Director with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Executive Director; (i) the Director-General of the Criminal Investigation Department of the Ghana Police Service or a representative of the Director-General with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Inspector-General of Police; (j) the Director of Operations of the National Security Council Secretariat or a representative of the Director with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Head of the National Security Council Secretariat (k) the Director of the Bureau of National Communications or a representative of the Director with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Director (l) the Director-General of Defence Intelligence or, a representative of the Director-General with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Chief of Defence Staff; (m) the Comptroller-General of the Immigration Service or a representative of the Comptroller-General with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Comptroller-General; (n) the Director of External Intelligence or a representative of the Director with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Chief of Defence Staff; (o) a representative of the Ghana Armed Forces not below the rank of a Colonel with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Chief of Defence Staff; (p) the Director of the Public Prosecutions Division of the Office of the Attorney-General or a representative of the Director with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Attorney-General; (q) the Director-General of the Authority; and (r) the Executive Director of the Ghana Domain Name Registry or a representative of the Executive Director with the requisite knowledge and skills in cybercrime and cybersecurity matters, nominated by the Executive Director. (3) A nomination under subsection (2) shall be made in consultation with the Authority. (4) The President shall appoint the members of the Joint Cybersecurity Committee. (5) The Director-General of the Authority shall preside at meetings of the Joint Cybersecurity Committee and in the absence of the Director-General, a member of the Committee elected by the members present from among the number shall preside. (6) The Joint Cybersecurity Committee shall meet at a time and place determined by the Director-General. (7) The quorum at a meeting of the Joint Cybersecurity Committee is ten members. (8) Matters before the Joint Cybersecurity Committee shall be decided by a majority of the members present and voting and in the event of an equality of votes, the person presiding shall have a casting vote. (9) The Joint Cybersecurity Committee shall regulate the procedure for meetings of the Committee. (10) Members of the Joint Cybersecurity Committee shall be paid allowances determined by the Minister in consultation with the Minister responsible for Finance. (11) The Joint Cybersecurity Committee may establish sub-committees comprising members of the Joint Cybersecurity Committee and non-members, including representatives from the private sector, to perform a function of the Joint Cybersecurity Committee. (12) A sub-committee established under subsection (10) shall meet regularly for the conduct of business where the exigencies require. (13) The Joint Cybersecurity Committee shall have a Secretariat at the Headquarters of the Authority. - 14 Verify source ↗
Functions of the Joint Cybersecurity Committee Administrative Provisions
AI-assisted research summary: The Joint Cybersecurity Committee must work with the Authority and represented sectors or institutions to implement relevant cybersecurity measures, and it is answerable to the Board for its office functions.
Section 14—Functions of the Joint Cybersecurity Committee (1) The Joint Cybersecurity Committee shall collaborate with the Authority and the sectors or institutions represented on the Committee for the implementation of relevant cybersecurity measures. (2) The Joint Cybersecurity Committee is answerable to the Board in the performance of functions of office. Administrative Provisions - 15 Verify source ↗
Appointment of Director-General
AI-assisted research summary: The President must appoint a Director-General for the Authority, and the appointee must meet the stated qualifications.
Section 15—Appointment of Director-General (1) The President shall, in accordance with article 195 of the Constitution, appoint a Director- General for the Authority. (2) The Director-General shall hold office on the terms and conditions specified in the letter of appointment. (3) A person is qualified for appointment as a Director-General if that person (a) has the relevant qualifications and expertise in cybersecurity matters; and (b) is a person of proven integrity. - 16 Verify source ↗
Functions of the Director-General
AI-assisted research summary: The Director-General manages the Authority’s day-to-day administration, answers to the Board, implements Board decisions, and may delegate functions but stays ultimately responsible.
Section 16—Functions of the Director-General (1) The Director-General is responsible for the day-to-day administration and management of the Authority and is answerable to the Board in the performance of functions under this Act. (2) The Director-General is responsible for the implementation of the decisions of the Board. (3) The Director-General may delegate a function to an officer of the Authority but shall not be relieved of the ultimate responsibility for the performance of the delegated function. - 17 Verify source ↗
Secretary to the Board
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must appoint a qualified Secretary to the Board, and the Secretary must carry out Board-directed administrative duties and answer to the Board.
Section 17—Secretary to the Board (1) The Authority shall designate a person appointed under section 20 as the Secretary to the Board. (2) A person shall not be engaged as Secretary to the Board unless that person has (a) a professional qualification that equips that person with the requisite knowledge and experience to perform the functions under subsection (3); or (b) by virtue of an academic qualification, or as a member of a professional body, is considered by the Board as capable of performing the functions of the Secretary. (3) The Secretary shall subject to the directives of the Board (a) arrange the business of the Board; (b) keep the minutes of the meetings and decisions of the Board in the form required by the Board; and (e) perform any other functions that the Board or the Director-General may direct. (4) The Secretary is answerable to the Board in the performance of the functions of office. - 18 Verify source ↗
Appointment of inspectors
AI-assisted research summary: The President must appoint inspectors for the Authority, and inspectors must meet specified qualifications and are not subject to direction or control when performing functions under the Act.
Section 18—Appointment of inspectors (1) The President shall appoint inspectors for the Authority. (2) An inspector shall hold office on the terms and conditions specified in the letter of appointment and the emoluments of the inspector shall be charged on the funds of the Authority. (3) A person is qualified for appointment as an inspector if that person (a) has knowledge and background in technology and cybersecurity; and (b) is a person of proven integrity. (4) Despite subsection (1), an inspector appointed under this act is not subject to the direction or control of a person or any authority in the performance of functions under this Act. - 19 Verify source ↗
Functions of inspectors
AI-assisted research summary: Inspectors must use orders, warrants, and retained or retrieved data only for the purposes for which they were issued or obtained, and they must submit quarterly inspection reports to the Board.
Section 19—Functions of inspectors (1) An inspector shall (a) ensure that a production order or an interception warrant issued under this Act is used for the purpose for which the order or warrant was issued; (b) ensure that data retained or retrieved in accordance with this Act is used for the purpose for which that data was retained or retrieved; and (c) submit quarterly reports on the outcome of inspections carried out to the Board. (2) The expenses incurred in the performance of the functions of an inspector shall be charged on the funds of the Authority. (3) An inspector is answerable to the Board in the performance of the functions of office. - 20 Verify source ↗
Appointment of other staff
AI-assisted research summary: The President must appoint necessary staff for the Authority, public officers may be transferred or seconded to it or assist it, and the Authority may hire consultants and advisors on the Board’s recommendation.
Section 20—Appointment of other staff (1) The President shall, in accordance with article 195 of the Constitution, appoint any other staff of the Authority that are necessary for the efficient and effective performance of the functions of the Authority. (2) Other public officers may be transferred or seconded to the Authority or may give assistance to the Authority. (3) The Authority may, for the efficient and effective discharge of the functions of the Authority, engage the services of consultants and advisors on the recommendation of the Board. - 21 Verify source ↗
Divisions of the Authority
AI-assisted research summary: The Board may create divisions of the Authority when needed for efficient and effective performance, and each division must be headed by a director.
Section 21—Divisions of the Authority (1) The Board may establish divisions of the Authority that are necessary for the efficient and effective performance of the functions of the Authority. (2) A division of the Authority shall be headed by a director. - 22 Verify source ↗
Internal Audit Unit Financial Provisions
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must maintain an Internal Audit Unit, headed by an Internal Auditor, and that auditor must report every three months.
Section 22—Internal Audit Unit (1) The Authority shall have an Internal Audit Unit in accordance with section 83 of the Public Financial Management Act, 2016 (Act 921). (2) The Internal Audit Unit shall be headed by an Internal Auditor who shall be appointed in accordance with the Internal Audit Agency Act, 2003 (Act 658). (3) The Internal Auditor is responsible for the internal audit of the Authority. (4) The Internal Auditor shall, subject to subsections (3) and (4) of section 16 of the Internal Audit Agency Act, 2003 (Act 658), at intervals of three months (a) prepare and submit to the Board, a report on the internal audit carried out during the period of three months immediately preceding the preparation of the report; and (b) make recommendations in each report, with respect to matters which appear to the Internal Auditor as necessary for the conduct of the affairs of the Authority. (5) The Internal Auditor shall, in accordance with subsection (4) of section 16 of the Internal Audit Agency Act, 2003 (Act 658), submit a copy of each report prepared under this section to the Director-General and the chairperson of the Board. Financial Provisions - 23 Verify source ↗
Funds of the Authority
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority’s funds come from several listed sources, including Parliament-approved moneys, administrative penalties, internally generated funds, and amounts approved by the Minister for Finance or the Board.
Section 23—Funds of the Authority The funds of the Authority include (a) moneys approved by Parliament; (b) administrative penalties; (c) any other internally generated funds; (d) loans, grants and donations approved by the Minister responsible for Finance; (e) an amount charged on the Fund subject to the approval of the Board; and (f) any other moneys approved by the Minister responsible for Finance. - 24 Verify source ↗
Bank account of the Authority
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must pay its moneys into a bank account opened for that purpose, with approval from the Controller and Accountant-General.
Section 24—Bank account of the Authority The moneys for the Authority shall be paid into a bank account opened for the purpose, by the Authority with the approval of the Controller and Accountant-General. - 25 Verify source ↗
Borrowing powers of the Authority
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority may borrow money and obtain other credit facilities, if the Government guarantees them and the Minister responsible for Finance approves the lender.
Section 25—Borrowing powers of the Authority Subject to section 76 of the Public Financial Management Act, 2016, (Act 921), the Authority may obtain loans and any other credit facility on the guarantee of the Government from a bank or any other financial institution approved by the Minister responsible for Finance. - 26 Verify source ↗
Expenses of the Authority
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority’s expenses must be paid from the Authority’s own funds.
Section 26—Expenses of the Authority The expenses of the Authority shall be charged on the funds of the Authority. - 27 Verify source ↗
Accounts and audit
AI-assisted research summary: The Board must keep accounting records in the form approved by the Auditor-General and submit the Authority’s accounts for audit at the end of the financial year.
Section 27—Accounts and audit (1) The Board shall keep books, records, returns and other documents relevant to the accounts in the form approved by the Auditor-General. (2) The Board shall submit the accounts of the Authority to the Auditor-General for audit at the end of the financial year. (3) The Auditor-General shall, within six months after the end of the immediately preceding financial year, audit the accounts and forward a copy each of the audit report to the Minister and the Board. (4) The financial year of the Authority is the same as the financial year of Government. - 28 Verify source ↗
Annual report and other reports Cybersecurity Fund
AI-assisted research summary: The Board must submit an annual report to the Minister within 30 days after receiving the audit report, and the Minister must forward it to Parliament within 30 days after receiving it.
Section 28—Annual report and other reports (1) The Board shall, within thirty days after the receipt of the audit report, submit an annual report to the Minister covering the activities and operations of the Authority for the year to which the annual report relates. (2) The annual report shall include (a) the report of the Auditor-General (b) a list of persons granted licences and accreditation in the year to which the annual report relates; (c) the number and outcome of production orders and interception warrants issued under this Act in the year to Which the annual report relates; and (d) the report of an inspector attached as a separate report. (3) The Minister shall, within thirty days after the receipt of the annual report, submit the report to Parliament with a statement that the Minister considers necessary. (4) The Board shall submit to the Minister any other report which the Minister may require in writing. Cybersecurity Fund - 29 Verify source ↗
Establishment of the Cybersecurity Fund
AI-assisted research summary: This section establishes a Cybersecurity Fund under the Act.
Section 29—Establishment of the Cybersecnrity Fund There is established by this Act a Cybersecurity Fund. - 30 Verify source ↗
Object of the Fund
AI-assisted research summary: The Fund exists to finance cybersecurity improvements for the country.
Section 30—Object of the Fund (1) The object of the Fund is to provide financial resources to promote and strengthen the cybersecurity of the country. (2) To achieve the object of the Fund, moneys from the Fund shall be applied to relevant activities that the Board may determine. (3) Without limiting subsection (2), moneys from the Fund shall be applied to (a) support research and development in cybersecurity; (b) support domestic, regional and international capacity building exercises in cybersecurity initiatives relevant to the cybersecurity of the country; and (e) undertake any other activity that is ancillary to the object of the Fund. - 31 Verify source ↗
Sources of moneys for the Fund
AI-assisted research summary: This section lists the possible sources of money for the Fund, including Parliament-approved seed money, amounts payable to the Authority for the Fund, grants and donations, charges set by the Authority, fees from government e-services, a possible parliamentary levy on e-services, and other Parliament-approved money.
Section 31—Sources of moneys for the Fund The sources of moneys for the Fund include (a) seed money approved by Parliament; (b) moneys which may become lawfully payable to the Authority for the Fund; (e) grants, gifts, donations and other voluntary contributions; (d) a charge determined by the Authority in accordance with the Fees and Charges (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 2018 (Act 983) and levied on persons licensed by the Bank of Ghana to carry on business; (e) a proportion of the fees charged on all government e-services determined by the Authority in accordance with the Fees and Charges (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 2018 (Act 983) (f) a levy that may be imposed by Parliament on e-services; and (g) any other moneys approved by Parliament for the Fund. - 32 Verify source ↗
Bank account for the Fund
AI-assisted research summary: Fund money must be paid into a bank account opened by the Authority for that purpose, with the approval of the Controller and Accountant-General.
Section 32—Bank account for the Fund Moneys for the Fund shall be paid into a bank account opened for that purpose by the Authority with the approval of the Controller and Accountant-General. - 33 Verify source ↗
Management of the Fund
AI-assisted research summary: The Board is responsible for managing the Fund.
Section 33—Management of the Fund (1) The Board is responsible for the management of the Fund. (2) Sections 27 and 28 on accounts and audit, and annual report and other reports apply to the Fund. - 34 Verify source ↗
Disbursement from the Fund Critical Information Infrastructure
AI-assisted research summary: Money from the Fund must be disbursed according to the Fund’s policy guidelines.
Section 34—Disbursement from the Fund The moneys from the Fund shall be disbursed in accordance with the policy guidelines of the Fund. Critical Information Infrastructure - 35 Verify source ↗
Designation of critical information infrastructure
AI-assisted research summary: The Minister may designate a computer system or computer network as critical information infrastructure, but must publish the designation in the Gazette and consider listed security, public service, and national interest factors.
Section 35—Designation of critical information infrastructure (1) The Minister may, on the advice of the Authority, designate a computer system or computer network as a critical information infrastructure if the Minister considers that the computer system or computer network is essential for (a) national security, or (b) the economic and social well-being of citizens. (2) Where the Minister designates a computer system or computer network as a critical information infrastructure, the Minister shall publish the designation in the Gazette. (3) The Minister shall, in making a determination under subsection (1), consider if the computer system or computer network is necessary for (a) the security, defence or international relations of the country; (b) the production, preservation or identity of a confidential source of information related to the enforcement of criminal law; (c) the provision of services directly related to (i) communications and telecommunications infrastructure; (ii) banking and financial services; (iii) public utilities (iv) public transportation; and (v) public key infrastructure; (d) the protection of public safety and public health, including systems related to essential emergency services; (e) an international business or communication affecting a citizen of Ghana or any other international business in which a citizen of Ghana or the Government has an interest; or (f) the Legislature, Executive, Judiciary, Public Services or security agencies. (4) The Minister shall, by publication in the Gazette, establish the procedure for the regulation of a critical information infrastructure. - 36 Verify source ↗
Registration of critical information infrastructure
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must register critical information infrastructure and publish registration requirements and procedure in the Gazette. If registered infrastructure changes ownership, the owner must tell the Authority within 7 days. Failure to do so can lead to an administrative penalty under the Second Schedule.
Section 36—Registration of critical information infrastructure (1) The Authority shall register a critical information infrastructure. (2) The Authority shall, by publication in the Gazette, determine (a) the requirements for the registration of a critical information infrastructure; (b) the procedure for the registration of a critical information infrastructure; and (c) any other matter relating to the registration of a critical information infrastructure. (3) Where there is any change in the legal ownership of a registered critical information infrastructure, the owner of the registered critical information infrastructure shall, within seven days after the change, inform the Authority of the change in ownership. (4) An owner of a registered critical information infrastructure who contravenes subsection (3) is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. - 37 Verify source ↗
Withdrawal of designation of critical information infrastructure
AI-assisted research summary: The Minister may withdraw a critical information infrastructure designation, but only on the Authority’s advice and by publication in the Gazette, if the system or network no longer meets the criteria.
Section 37—Withdrawal of designation of critical information infrastructure The Minister may, on the advice of the Authority and by publication in the Gazette, withdraw the designation of a critical information infrastructure at any time if the Minister considers that the computer system or computer network no longer satisfies the criteria of a critical information infrastructure. - 38 Verify source ↗
Management and compliance audit of critical information infrastructure
AI-assisted research summary: The Minister must set minimum standards for prohibitions linked to critical information infrastructure, and the Authority must conduct periodic audits and inspections for compliance.
Section 38—Management and compliance audit of critical information infrastructure (1) The Minister shall prescribe minimum standards for prohibitions in respect of the general, management of a critical information infrastructure that the Minister considers necessary for the protection of national security. (2) The Authority shall carry out a periodic audit and inspection on a critical information infrastructure to ensure compliance with the provisions of this Act. - 39 Verify source ↗
Duty of owner of critical information infrastructure
AI-assisted research summary: The owner of a critical information infrastructure must report cybersecurity incidents within 24 hours of detection, arrange an audit, and send the audit report to the Authority.
Section 39—Duty of owner of critical information infrastructure (1) An owner of a critical information infrastructure shall (a) report a cybersecurity incident within twenty-four hours after the incident is detected to (i) the relevant Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team, or (ii) the National Computer Emergency Response Team, in the case of a critical information infrastructure that does not belong to a Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team; (b) cause an audit to be performed on a critical information infrastructure; and (c) submit a copy of the audit report to the Authority. (2) An owner of a critical information infrastructure who contravenes (a) paragraph (a) of subsection (1), (b) paragraph (b) of subsection (1), or (c) paragraph (c) of subsection (1) is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. - 40 Verify source ↗
Access to critical information infrastructure National and Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Teams
AI-assisted research summary: A person must not, without authorisation, access or try to access a critical information infrastructure computer system or network.
Section 40—Access to critical information infrastructure (1) A person shall not without authorisation (a) secure access, or (b) attempt to secure access to a computer system or a computer network designated as a critical information infrastructure. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than two thousand, five hundred penalty units and not more than fifteen thousand penalty units or to a term of imprisonment of not less than two years and not more than five years, or to both. (3) Where the offence committed under subsection (1) (a) results in a serious bodily injury, financial loss or damage to the computer system or computer network designated as a critical information infrastructure, the person who commited[sic] the offence (i) in the case of an individual, is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than five thousand penalty units and not more than fifty thousand penalty units or to a term of imprisonment of not less than five years and not more than fifteen years or to both; or (ii) in the case of a body corporate, a partnership or a firm is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than twenty-five thousand penalty units and not more than fifty thousand penalty units; and (b) is deemed to be a terrorist act, the person who committed the offence is liable on conviction on indictment to a term of imprisonment of not less than seven years and not more than twenty-five years. (4) Where an offence under subsection (3) is committed by a body corporate or by a member of a partnership or other firm, every director or officer of that body corporate or a member of the partnership or any other person concerned with the management of the firm shall be deemed to have committed that offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than five thousand penalty units and not more than fifty thousand penalty units. (5) A person shall not be convicted of an offence by virtue of subsection (4) if it is proved that (a) due diligence was exercised to prevent the commission of the offence; and (b) the offence was committed without the knowledge, consent or connivance of that person. National and Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Teams - 41 Verify source ↗
Establishment of the National Computer Emergency Response Team
AI-assisted research summary: This section establishes the National Computer Emergency Response Team.
Section 41—Establishment of the National Computer Emergency Response Team There is established by this Act, the National Computer Emergency Response Team. - 42 Verify source ↗
Functions of the National Computer Emergency Response Team
AI-assisted research summary: The National Computer Emergency Response Team must respond to cybersecurity incidents, coordinate responses among public and private institutions and international bodies, and oversee the Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team.
Section 42—Functions of the National Computer Emergency Response Team The National Computer Emergency Response Team (a) is responsible for responding to cybersecurity incidents; (b) shall co-ordinate responses to cybersecurity incidents amongst public institutions, private institutions and international bodies; and (c) oversee the Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team established under section 44. - 43 Verify source ↗
Responsibility of the Authority relating to response to cybersecurity incident
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must equip the National Computer Emergency Response Team with the tools it needs and support cooperation with other countries’ sectoral emergency response teams. It may also issue regulatory directives to Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Teams, which must comply.
Section 43—Responsibility of the Authority relating to response to cybersecurity incident (1) The Authority shall ensure that the National Computer Emergency Response Team (a) is equipped with the relevant tools required to effectively respond to cybersecurity incidents; and (b) co-operates with Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team of other countries in respect of cybersecurity incidents. (2) The Authority may give regulatory directives to the Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Teams and the Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Teams shall comply. - 44 Verify source ↗
Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must create sectoral computer emergency response teams by Gazette notice, oversee them, and set reporting templates; the teams must send monthly reports and may be penalized for noncompliance.
Section 44—Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team (1) For the purposes of achieving an effective cybersecurity incident co-ordination, the Authority shall by notice published in the Gazette, establish Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Teams to (a) collect and collate cybersecurity incidents; and (b) co-ordinate responses to cybersecurity incidents with in the sectors. (2) The Authority shall, in establishing a Sectoral computer Emergency Response Team, take into account factors including (a) the needs and criticality of a sector; and (b) developments in respect of cybersecurity in the country. (3) The establishment and operational cost of a Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team established under subsection (1) shall be borne by the sector concerned. (4) The Authority shall accredit and oversee the operation of Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Teams. (5) A Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team shall submit to the Authority, through the administrative head of that Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team, a monthly report covering the operations of that Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team based on a reporting template determined by the Authority. (6) A Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team that fails to comply with the regulatory directives of the Authority, is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. (7) A notice published under subsection (1) shall state the relevant requirements including the (a) reporting obligation of the Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team concerned and the penalty for noncompliance; and (b) adherence to risk management protocols. (8) For the purposes of this section, "sector" includes the (a) public sector; (b) banking and financial sector; (c) telecommunication sector; (d) energy and utilities sector; (e) military sector; (f) national security sector; (g) academic sector; (h) health sector; (i) transportation sector; and (j) any other sector determined by the Authority. - 45 Verify source ↗
Cybersecurity incident monitoring and response system
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority may set up a cybersecurity incident monitoring and response system and must put in place technical measures to make it effective.
Section 45—Cybersecurity incident monitoring and response system (1) The Authority may establish a cybersecurity incident monitoring and response system. (2) The Authority shall implement the relevant technical measures to ensure an effective cybersecurity incident monitoring and response system. (3) Without limiting subsection (2), a technical measure aimed at ensuring an effective cybersecurity incident monitoring and response system shall include an interception capability to execute an interception warrant authorised by a Court. (4) For the purposes of subsection (3), the Authority shall intercept, disable or take-down a digital technology, digital service or a digital product that is likely to undermine the cybersecurity of the country. - 46 Verify source ↗
Early warning system Cybersecurity Incident Reporting
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must establish and implement an early warning system for human-initiated risks that could undermine the country’s cybersecurity and use it to advise the public on cybersecurity matters.
Section 46—Early warning system (1) The Authority shall establish an early warning system in respect of human initiated risks that are likely to undermine the cybersecurity of the country. (2) The Authority shall implement the early warning system to advise the public on cybersecurity matters. Cybersecurity Incident Reporting - 47 Verify source ↗
Duty to report cybersecurity incident
AI-assisted research summary: Several actors must report cybersecurity incidents, and the Authority must set up a reporting and information-sharing platform.
Section 47—Duty to report cybersecurity incident (1) A Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team shall report a cybersecurity incident to the Authority through the National Computer Emergency Response Team, (2) An institution licensed by the Authority to provide a cybersecurity service shall, within the period determined by the Authority, submit to the Authority a report covering the operations of that institution including a report of a cybersecurity incident. (3) The Authority shall establish a cybersecurity incident reporting and information sharing platform to enable a Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team, a licensee and any other relevant institution report a cybersecurity incident. (4) The Authority shall, upon receipt of information in respect of a cybersecurity incident, circulate the information to a Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team, a licensed and any other relevant institution. (5) A person in charge of an institution shall report a cybersecurity incident to the relevant Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team or the National Computer Emergency Response Team within a period of not more than twenty-four hours after the incident is detected. (6) A person who contravenes subsection (5) is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. - 48 Verify source ↗
Cybersecurity incident point of contact Licensing of Cybersecurity Service Providers
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must create a cybersecurity incident point of contact. Certain institutions must report incidents through it, and individuals may also use it to report incidents.
Section 48—Cybersecurity incident point of contact (1) The Authority shall, establish a cybersecurity incident point of contact to facilitate (a) reporting of a cybersecurity incident by the general public; and (b) international co-operation in cybersecurity matters. (2) An institution that is not affiliated to a designated Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team, shall report a cybersecurity incident to the National Computer Emergency Response Team through the cybersecurity incident point of contact established under subsection (1). (3) An individual may report a cybersecurity incident to the National Computer Emergency Response Team through the cybersecurity incident point of contact established under subsection (1). Licensing of Cybersecurity Service Providers - 49 Verify source ↗
Licensing of cybersecurity service providers
AI-assisted research summary: A person may not provide a cybersecurity service unless licensed by the Authority.
Section 49—Licensing of cybersecurity service providers (1) A person shall not provide a cybersecurity service unless that person obtains a licence issued by the Authority in accordance with this Act. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. - 50 Verify source ↗
Application for licence
AI-assisted research summary: Anyone who wants to provide a cybersecurity service must apply in writing to the Authority, using the prescribed form and paying any prescribed fee, and the Authority must acknowledge the application within 14 days.
Section 50—Application for licence (1) A person who seeks to provide a cybersecurity service shall apply in writing to the Authority. (2) The application shall be made in the prescribed form and accompanied by the (a) supporting documentation, and (b) prescribed fee, that the Authority may determine. (3) The Authority shall within fourteen days of receipt of an application, acknowledge receipt of the application. - 51 Verify source ↗
Grant of licence
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority may grant a licence if the applicant meets the Authority’s requirements and the grant is not against the public interest. It must notify applicants of decisions within 30 days and give refusal reasons within 28 days. A licensed cybersecurity service provider that uses a licence for another purpose must pay the administrative penalty in the Second Schedule.
Section 51—Grant of licence (1) Where the Authority is satisfied that (a) the applicant meets the requirements of the Authority for the grant of a licence, and (b) the grant of a licence is not against public interest the Authority may grant the licence to the applicant. (2) The Authority shall, within thirty days of receipt of an application for a licence, inform the applicant in writing of the decision of the Authority. (3) A licence granted by the Authority is subject to the terms and conditions specified in the licence. (4) Where the Authority refuses to grant a licence, the Authority shall within twenty-eight days after the refusal communicate in writing the reason for the refusal to grant the licence. (5) A licensed cybersecurity service provider who uses a licence for a purpose other than that for which the licence was granted is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. - 52 Verify source ↗
Non-transferability of licence
AI-assisted research summary: A person who is granted a licence must not transfer it to someone else.
Section 52—Non-transferability of licence (1) A person granted a licence shall not transfer that licence to another person. (2) A person who transfers a licence contrary to subsection (1) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than five thousand penalty units and not more than ten thousand penalty units or to a term of imprisonment of not less than six months and not more than two years, or to both. - 53 Verify source ↗
Validity and duration of licence
AI-assisted research summary: A licence under this Act lasts for two years. A licensed cybersecurity service provider that wants to keep operating must apply in writing to the Authority for renewal at least one month before the licence expires.
Section 53—Validity and duration of licence (1) A licence granted under this Act is valid for two years from the date that the licence is granted. (2) A licensed cybersecurity service provider who intends to continue operations as a cybersecurity service provider shall, not later than one month before the expiration of the licence, apply in writing to the Authority for a renewal of the licence. - 54 Verify source ↗
Suspension of licence
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority may suspend a licence for up to six months if the licensee does not renew it in time or breaches a licence condition.
Section 54—Suspension of licence (1) The Authority may suspend a licence issued under this Act for a period of not more than six months where (a) the licensee fails to renew the licence not later than one month before the expiration of the licence; or (b) the licensee fails to comply with a condition specified in the licence. (2) The Authority shall, before exercising the power of suspension under this section, (a) give the licensee thirty days notice in writing of the intention to do so, and (b) specify in the notice the grounds on which the Authority intends to suspend the licence. (3) Where the Authority decides to suspend a licence, the Authority shall give the licensee the opportunity (a) to submit to the Authority, within the time specified by the Authority, a written statement of objections, if any, to the suspension of the licence; and (b) to remedy, within the time specified by the Authority, the breach which has occasioned the decision to suspend the licence. (4) The Authority shall, within twenty-eight days of the suspension of a licence, notify the cybersecurity service provider concerned of the suspension. - 55 Verify source ↗
Revocation of licence
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority may revoke a licence for specified misconduct or other disqualifying circumstances, and must publish the revocation in the Gazette.
Section 55—Revocation of licence (1) The Authority may revoke a licence issued under this Act if the Authority considers that (a) the licence has been obtained by fraud or misrepresentation; (b) the licensee has ceased to carry on the business for which the licensee is licensed; (e) the licensee has been convicted of an offence under this Act or an offence involving fraud, dishonesty or moral turpitude; (d) a circumstance existed at the time the licence was granted or renewed that the Authority was unaware of, which would have prevented the Authority from granting or renewing the licence of the licensee if the Authority had been aware of the circumstance at that time; (e) the licensee has been declared bankrupt or has gone into compulsory or voluntary liquidation other than for the purpose of amalgamation or reconstruction; (f) the licensee no longer meets the requirements for holding the licence; or (g) it is not in the public interest for the licensee to continue to carry on the business of a licensee. (2) Subsection (1) and (2) of section 54 apply to revocation of a licence. (3) The Authority shall publish the revocation of a licence under this section in the Gazette. - 56 Verify source ↗
Review of decision of Authority Accreditation and Certification
AI-assisted research summary: A person dissatisfied with a decision may seek review by complaint to the Board, then the Minister, and finally by court action, each within 28 days of receipt of the relevant decision.
Section 56—Review of decision of Authority (1) A person aggrieved by a decision of the Authority may, within twenty-eight days of receipt of the decision, submit a complaint in writing to the Board for a review of the decision. (2) A person dissatisfied with the decision of the Board may, within twenty-eight days after the date of receipt of the decision, submit a complaint in writing to the Minister for a review of the decision of the Board. (3) A person dissatisfied with the decision of the Minister may, within twenty-eight days after the date of receipt of the decision, seek redress in a court of competent jurisdiction. Accreditation and Certification - 57 Verify source ↗
Accreditation of cybersecurity professionals and practitioners
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must establish a mechanism to accredit cybersecurity professionals and practitioners.
Section 57—Accreditation of cybersecurity professionals and practitioners The Authority shall establish a mechanism for the accreditation of cybersecurity professionals and practitioners. - 58 Verify source ↗
Certification of cybersecurity products and technology solutions Cybersecurity Standards, Enforcement and Education
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must set up a certification mechanism for cybersecurity products and technology solutions.
Section 58—Certification of cybersecurity products and technology solutions The Authority shall establish a mechanism for the certification of cybersecurity products and technology solutions. Cybersecurity Standards, Enforcement and Education - 59 Verify source ↗
Cybersecurity standards and enforcement
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must develop and publish cybersecurity standards, promote their adoption, enforce them, and monitor compliance. A person who breaches the standards must pay the administrative penalty in the Second Schedule.
Section 59—Cybersecurity standards and enforcement (1) The Authority shall develop, establish and adopt standards for cybersecurity (a) education and skills development; (b) hardware and software engineering; (c) governance and risk management; (d) research and development; and (e) practitioners in any other relevant area that the Authority may determine in accordance with international best practice. (2) The Authority shall publish on the website of the Authority, the standards developed and promote the adoption of the standards by a Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team, a licensed service provider, an institution or any other relevant person. (3) The Authority shall take the necessary measures to enforce the cybersecurity standards adopted and monitor compliance by the public and private sectors with the cybersecurity standards. (4) A person who breaches the cybersecurity standards is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. - 60 Verify source ↗
Cybersecurity public awareness and education
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must carry out programmes to promote public awareness and education on cybersecurity.
Section 60—Cybersecurity public awareness and education The Authority shall carry out programmes to promote public awareness and education on matters relating to cybersecurity. - 61 Verify source ↗
Research and development programme Protection of Children Online
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must create and carry out a cybersecurity research and development programme, build a qualification framework for cybersecurity trainers and institutions, develop or implement technology solutions to address cybersecurity threats, and work with research centres and other institutions.
Section 61—Research and development programme The Authority shall (a) develop and implement a research and development programme to promote the development of cybersecurity in the country; (b) develop a qualification and competency framework for (i) persons offering training in cybersecurity programmes; and (ii) educational institutions offering cybersecurity programmes; (c) develop or implement technology solutions to mitigate existing and emerging cybersecurity threats and vulnerabilities to ensure the cybersecurity of the country; and (d) collaborate with academic research centres and other relevant institutions within and outside the country, for the development and implementation of cybersecurity research and development programmes for the country. Protection of Children Online - 62 Verify source ↗
Indecent image and photograph of a child
AI-assisted research summary: A person must not take, produce, publish/stream, or possess an indecent image or photograph of a child.
Section 62—Indecent image or photograph of a child (1) A person shall not (a) take or permit to be taken an indecent image or photograph of a child; (b) produce or procure an indecent images or photograph of a child for the purpose of the publication of the indecent image or photograph through a computer system; (c) publish, stream. including live stream, an indecent images or photograph of a child through a computer or an electronic device; or (d) possess an indecent images or photograph of a child in a computer system or on a computer or electronic record storage medium. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than two thousand five hundred penalty units and not more than five thousand penalty units or to a term of imprisonment of not less than five years and not more than ten years or to both. (3) For purposes of paragraph (c) of subsection (1), a person publishes an indecent photograph, image or visual recording if that person, (a) parts with possession of the indecent photograph, image or recording to another person; or (b) exposes or offers the indecent photograph. image or recording for acquisition by another person. (4) For the purpose of this section, "indecent image or photographs" includes a material images, visual recording, video, drawing or text that depicts (a) a child engaged in sexually explicit or suggestive conduct; (b) a person who appears to be a child engaged in sexually explicit or suggestive conduct; (c) image representing a child engaged in sexually explicit or suggestive conduct; (d) sexually explicit images of children; (e) any written material, visual representation or audio recording that advocates or counsels sexual activity with children that would be an offence under the Criminal Offences Act, 1960 (Act 29) or any other relevant enactment; (f) any written material that has, as its dominant characteristic, the description, for a sexual purpose, of sexual activity with a child that would be an offence under the Criminal Offences Act, 1960 (Act 29) or any other relevant enactment; or (g) any audio recording that has as its dominant characteristic the description, presentation or representation, for a sexual purpose, of sexual activity with a child that would be an offence under the Criminal Offences Act, 1960 (Act 29) or any other relevant enactment. - 63 Verify source ↗
Dealing with child for purposes of sexual abuse
AI-assisted research summary: A person must not use certain electronic services or devices to groom, solicit, lure, entice, or attempt to do so with a child for unlawful sexual conduct.
Section 63—Dealing with a child for purposes of sexual abuse (1) A person shall not use (a) a computer online service, (b) an internet service, (c) a local bulletin board service, or (d) any other device capable of electronic data storage or transmission to seduce, solicit, lure, groom or entice, or attempt to seduce, solicit, lure, groom or entice, a child or another person believed by the person to be a child, for the purpose of facilitating, encouraging, offering, or soliciting unlawful sexual conduct of or with any child, or the visual depiction of such conduct. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1), commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a term of imprisonment of not less than five years and not more than fifteen years. - 64 Verify source ↗
Aiding and abetting of child dealing for purposes of sexual abuse
AI-assisted research summary: Operators of certain online services must not help or allow child sexual solicitation or unlawful sexual conduct involving a child.
Section 64—Aiding and abetting of child dealing for purposes of sexual abuse (1) An owner or operator of a computer on-line service, weblog, internet service, or internet bulletin board service shall not (a) aid and abet another person for the purpose of facilitating or encouraging the on-line solicitation of a child; or (b) permit any person to use the service of that person for the purpose of facilitating, encouraging, offering, or soliciting unlawful sexual conduct of or with a child, or the visual depiction of such conduct. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a term of imprisonment of not less than five years and not more than fifteen years. - 65 Verify source ↗
Cyberstalking of a child
AI-assisted research summary: A person must not use electronic services or devices to spread a child’s identifying information to arrange a meeting for sexual purposes.
Section 65—Cyberstalking of a child (1) A person shall not use a computer online service, an internet service, or a local internet bulletin board service or any other electronic device to compile, transmit, publish, reproduce, buy, sell, receive, exchange, or disseminate the name, telephone number, electronic mail address, residence address, picture, physical description, characteristics, or any other identifying information on a child in furtherance of an effort to arrange a meeting with the child for the purpose of engaging in sexual intercourse, sexually explicit conduct, or unlawful sexual activity. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a term of imprisonment of not less than five years and not more than fifteen years. (3) For the purpose of this section, "unlawful sexual activity" means a sexual activity characterised by (a) a recurrent intense sexual urge of a person, (b) a sexually arousing fantasy of a person, or (c) the use of an object by a person resulting in the suffering or humiliation of that person, the partner of that person, a child or any other non-consenting partner. - 66 Verify source ↗
Sexual extortion Other Online Sexual Offences
AI-assisted research summary: A person must not threaten to share intimate or private sexual images to harass, coerce, extort, or force unwanted sexual activity.
Section 66—Sexual extortion (1) A person shall not threaten to distribute by post, email, text, or transmit, by electronic means or otherwise, a private image or moving images of the other person engaged in sexually explicit conduct, with the specific intent to (a) harass, threaten, coerce, intimidate or exert any undue influence on the person, especially to extort money or other consideration or to compel the victim to engage in unwanted sexual activity; or (b) actually extort money or other consideration or compel the victim to engage in unwanted sexual activity. (2) A person shall not threaten to distribute by post, email, text, or transmit, by electronic means or otherwise, an intimate image of a child engaged in sexually explicit conduct, with the specific intent to (a) harass, threaten, coerce, or intimidate the person, especially with intent to extort money or other consideration or to compel the victim to engage in unwanted sexual activity; or (b) actually extort money or other consideration or compel the victim to engage in unwanted sexual activity. (3) For the purposes of subsections (1) and (2), an intimate image may include a depiction in a way that the genital or anal region of another person is bare or covered only by underwear; or the breasts below the top of the areola, that is either uncovered or clearly visible through clothing. (4) A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a term of imprisonment of not less than ten years and not more than twenty-five years. Other Online Sexual Offences - 67 Verify source ↗
Non-consensual sharing of intimate image
AI-assisted research summary: A person must not intentionally share, or cause someone else to share, another identifiable person’s intimate image or prohibited visual recording without consent and where privacy was reasonably expected; doing so is an offence.
Section 67—Non-consensual sharing of intimate image (1) A person shall not, with intent to, cause serious emotional distress, intentionally distribute or intentionally cause another person to distribute the intimate image or prohibited visual recording of another identifiable person without the consent of the person depicted in the intimate image and in respect of which, there was a reasonable expectation of privacy both at the time of the creation of the image or visual recording and at the time the offence was committed. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than three years. (3) For the purpose of this section, "serious emotional distress" includes any intentional conduct that results in mental reactions such as fright, nervousness, grief, anxiety, worry, mortification, shock, humiliation and indignity, as well as physical pain. - 68 Verify source ↗
Threat to distribute prohibited intimate image or visual recording Cybersecurity and Investigatory Powers
AI-assisted research summary: A person must not threaten to distribute a prohibited intimate image or visual recording if the threat would cause distress and fear; violating this is an offence punishable by 1 to 3 years’ imprisonment on summary conviction.
Section 68—Threat to distribute prohibited intimate image or visual recording (1) A person shall not threaten another person to distribute a prohibited intimate image or visual recording of that person in a way that would cause that other person distress reasonably arising in all the circumstances and the threat is made in a way that would cause that other person fear, reasonably arising in all the circumstances, of the threat being carried out. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than three years. Cybersecurity and Investigatory Powers - 69 Verify source ↗
Application for production order of subscriber information
AI-assisted research summary: An investigative officer may apply ex parte to the High Court for a production order to collect subscriber information.
Section 69—Application for production order of subscriber information (1) An investigative officer may apply ex-parte to the High Court for a production order to collect subscriber information. (2) An investigative officer who makes an application under subsection (1) shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Court that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the subscriber information associated with a specified communication and related to or connected with a person under investigation is reasonably required for the purposes of a specific criminal investigation. (3) Where an investigative officer makes an application under subsection (1), that investigative officer shall (a) explain why the investigative officer believes the subscriber information sought, will be available to the person in control of the computer or computer system; (b) identify and explain with specificity the type of subscriber information suspected to be found on the computer or computer system; (c) identify and explain with specificity the subscribers, users or unique identifier that may be found on a computer or computer system that is the subject of an investigation or prosecution; (d) identify and explain with specificity the offences in respect of which the production order is sought; and (e) indicate what measures shall be taken to ensure that the subscriber information will be procured (i) whilst maintaining the privacy of other users, customers and third parties, and (ii) without the disclosure of the subscriber information of any party not part of the investigation. (4) Subject to clause (14) of article 19 of the Constitution, proceedings under this section and sections 65 and 68 shall be held in camera. - 70 Verify source ↗
Issue of production order for subscriber information
AI-assisted research summary: The High Court may issue a production order for subscriber information if strict conditions are met, and the service provider must keep the order confidential.
Section 70—Issue of production order for subscriber information (1) The High Court may grant an application for a production order under section 69 if the Court is satisfied that (a) the investigative officer has complied with subsections (2) and (3) of section 69; (b) the information requested is commensurate, proportionate and necessary for the purposes of a specific criminal investigation or prosecution; (c) measures shall be taken to ensure that the subscriber information is produced whilst maintaining the privacy of other users, customers and third parties and without the disclosure of information and data of any party not part of the investigation; and (d) the investigation may be frustrated or seriously prejudiced unless the production of the information is permitted. (2) The Court shall require the service provider to keep confidential the production order and execution of the production order under this section. (3) A production order granted under this section shall be served on a domestic service provider, foreign service provider or both. (4) A service provider that contravenes subsection (2) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than ten thousand penalty units and not more than twenty thousand penalty units. - 71 Verify source ↗
Application for interception of traffic data
AI-assisted research summary: A senior investigative officer authorised by a designated officer may apply ex parte to the High Court for an interception warrant for traffic data, but must support the application with specified details and privacy-related measures.
Section 71—Application for interception of traffic data (1) A senior investigative officer authorised by a designated officer may apply ex-parte to the High Court, for an interception warrant to collect or record traffic data stored or in real-time. (2) A senior investigative officer authorised by a designated officer who makes an application under subsection (1) shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Court that there are reasonable grounds to believe that traffic data associated with a specified communication and related to or connected with a person under investigation is reasonably required for the purposes of a specific criminal investigation. (3) Where a senior investigative officer authorised by a designated officer makes an application under subsection (1), that senior investigative officer shall (a) explain why the senior. investigative officer believes traffic data sought, will be available to the person ill control of the computer or computer system; (b) identify and explain with specificity the type of traffic data suspected to be found on the computer or computer system; (c) identify and explain with specificity the subscribers, users or unique identifier that may be found on a computer or computer system that is the subject of an investigation or prosecution; (d) identify and explain with specificity the offences in respect of which the interception warrant is sought; and (e) indicate what measures shall be taken to ensure that the traffic data will be procured (i) whilst maintaining the privacy of other users, customers and third parties, and (ii) without the disclosure of the traffic data of any party not part of the investigation. (4) Subject to clause (14) of article 19 of the Constitution, proceedings under this section and section 70 shall be held in camera. - 72 Verify source ↗
Issue of interception warrant for traffic data
AI-assisted research summary: The High Court may grant an interception warrant for traffic data if stated conditions are met, and service providers must keep the warrant and its execution confidential.
Section 72—Issue of interception warrant for traffic data (1) The High Court may grant an application for an interception warrant under section 71 to collect or record traffic data stored or in real-tune if the Court is satisfied that (a) the senior investigative officer authorised by a designated officer has complied with subsections (2) and (3) of section 71; (b) the extent of interception is commensurate proportionate and necessary for the purposes of a specific criminal investigation or prosecution; (c) measures shall be taken to ensure that the traffic data is intercepted whilst maintaining the privacy of other users, customers and third parties and without the disclosure of information and data of any party not part of the investigation; and (d) the investigation may be frustrated or seriously prejudiced unless the interception is permitted. (2) The Court shall require the service provider to keep confidential the interception warrant and execution of the warrant under this section. (3) A service provider that contravenes subsection (2) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than ten thousand penalty units and not more than twenty thousand penalty units. - 73 Verify source ↗
Application for interception of content data
AI-assisted research summary: A designated officer may apply ex parte to the High Court for an interception warrant to collect or record content data.
Section 73—Application for interception of content data (1) A designated officer may apply ex-parte to the High Court for an interception warrant to collect or record content data. (2) A designated officer who makes an application under subsection (1) shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Court that there are reasonable grounds to authorise the interception of content data and associated traffic data, related to or connected with a person or premises under investigation for one of the following purposes: (a) in the interests of national security; (b) the prevention or detection of a serious offence; (c) in the interests of the economic well-being of the citizenry, so far as those interests are also relevant to the interests of national security; or (d) to give effect to a mutual legal assistance request. (3) Where a designated officer makes an application under subsection (1), the officer shall (a) explain why the designated officer believes the content data sought, will be available to the person in control of the computer or computer system; (b) identify and explain the type of content data suspected to be found on the computer or computer system; (c) identify and explain the subscribers, users or unique identifier that may be found on a computer or computer system that is the subject of an investigation or prosecution; (d) identify and explain the offences in respect of which the warrant is sought; and (e) indicate what measures shall be taken to prepare and ensure that the content data will be procured (i) whilst maintaining the privacy of other users, customers and third parties; and (ii) without the disclosure of the data of any party not part of the investigation. (4) Subject to clause (14) of article 19 of the Constitution, proceedings under this section and section 70 shall be held in camera. - 74 Verify source ↗
Issue of interception warrant for content data
AI-assisted research summary: The High Court may issue an interception warrant for content data if listed safeguards and necessity conditions are met; the service provider must intercept, provide the data immediately, and keep the warrant confidential.
Section 74—Issue of interception warrant for content data (1) The High Court may grant an application for an interception warrant under section 73 to collect or record content data stored or in real-time if the Court is satisfied that (a) the designated officer has complied with subsections (2) and (3) of section 73; (b) the extent of interception is commensurate, proportionate and necessary for the purposes of a specific criminal investigation or prosecution; (e) measures shall be taken to ensure that the content data is intercepted whilst maintaining the privacy of other users, customers and third parties and without the disclosure of information and data of any party not part of the investigation; and (d) the investigation may be frustrated or seriously prejudiced unless the interception is permitted. (2) The interception warrant issued under subsection (1) shall require a service provider, to (a) intercept that content data stored or in real-time; and (b) provide that content data to the officer immediately. (3) The Court shall require the service provider to keep confidential an interception warrant issued under this section. (4) A service provider who contravenes subsection (3) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than ten thousand penalty units and not more than twenty thousand penalty units. (5) Subject to this section, the Chief Justice shall designate a court or a Justice of the High Court for the purpose of considering a request for warrant made under this section. - 75 Verify source ↗
Duration and extension of a production order or an interception warrant
AI-assisted research summary: A production order or interception warrant lasts for the period stated in it and can be extended.
Section 75—Duration and extension of a production order or an interception warrant (1) A production order or an interception warrant issued under section 70, 72 or 74 is valid for the period specified in the production order or interception warrant and may be extended. (2) Where an extension is necessary, an investigative officer, a senior investigative officer or a designated officer, as the case may be, may apply to the High Court to obtain an extension of that production order or interception warrant. (3) An application for an extension of a production order or an interception warrant to collect or record (a) subscriber information, (b) traffic data, or (c) content data is subject to the same conditions for the issue of the production order or interception warrant. - 76 Verify source ↗
Interception capability
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority can require a service provider to install interception capability, and the provider must meet specified security, staffing, decryption, cost, and location restrictions.
Section 76—Interception capability (1) The Authority may request a service provider to install an interception capability to enforce interception warrants issued by a court of competent jurisdiction. (2) The Authority shall specify the requirements for the interception capability based on relevant technology and security standards. (3) A service provider required by the Authority to install an interception capability under subsection (1) shall appoint a focal person to oversee the execution of interception warrants and related matters in the organisation concerned. (4) A focal person appointed under subsection (3) is subject to security clearance by the National Security Co-ordinator. (5) Equipment obtained for the purpose of the interception capability under this Act shall not be (a) installed, managed or monitored m a foreign country; or (b) in a form to enable the equipment to be remotely accessed from a foreign country for the purposes of maintenance. (6) A service provider required to obtain an interception capability shall take the necessary steps to have the ability to decrypt a telecommunication message. (7) A service provider that is required to obtain an interception capability shall bear the cost of the installation or modification of the interception capability. (8) The requirement for the installation of an interception capability applies to a domestic service provider. (9) A service provider which is a body corporate that contravenes subsection (5) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than ten thousand penalty units and not more than twenty thousand penalty units. (10) The Chief Executive Officer, Deputy Chief Executive Officer, Chief Legal Officer or the officer-in-charge of finance for the service provider that commits an offence under subsection (9) shall be deemed to have also committed the offence. (11) A person shall not be convicted of an offence pursuant to subsection (10), where it is proved to the satisfaction of the Court that, having regard to the nature of the offence (a) that person did not consent to, or did not connive in the commission of the offence, or (b) that person did exercise the degree of reasonable diligence as in the circumstances ought to have been exercised to prevent the commission of the offence. (12) A service provides who fails to comply with a request of the Authority under subsection (1) or who contravenes subsection (6) is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. - 77 Verify source ↗
Retention of data Realisation of Property
AI-assisted research summary: Service providers must keep certain data for set periods, may seek a High Court extension for traffic and content data beyond 12 months, and must not use retained data for purposes not stated in an interception warrant.
Section 77—Retention of data (1) A service provider shall retain (a) subscriber information for at least six years; (b) traffic data for a period of twelve months; and (c) relevant content data for a period of twelve months. (2) Where it is necessary for traffic data and content data to be retained for more than twelve months, the investigative officer, the senior investigative officer authorised by a designated officer or the designated officer, as the case may be, may apply ex-parte to the High Court, for an extension of the period. (3) Where the Court grants an order for an extension, the order shall (a) indicate the period of the extension; and (b) be served on the service provider. (4) A service provider or any other person who has access to data retained, processed or retrieved in accordance with this Act shall not use that data for a purpose other than what is stated in an interception warrant. (5) A service provider or any other person who contravenes subsection (1) or (4) is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. Realisation of Property - 78 Verify source ↗
Freezing of assets
AI-assisted research summary: The Court may freeze assets and require disclosures if the Authority applies and the Court suspects an offence under the Act or a cybercrime.
Section 78—Freezing of assets (1) Where on an application by the Authority, the Court is satisfied that the Authority has reasonable grounds to suspect that a person has committed or is committing an offence under this Act or has been involved in a crime in cyberspace, the Court may by an order (a) restrain that person or any other person acting on behalf of that person or a person holding assets on behalf of that person from disposing, transferring or pledging an asset or making a withdrawal from an account or deposit at a bank or financial institution; (b) attach the assets due or owing, or belonging to, or held by or on behalf of that person; (c) compel that person to make a full disclosure within the time specified in the order, of all assets and the nature and source of the assets; (d) compel the person named in the order to make a full disclosure of the assets held on behalf of that person; or (e) direct the opening, in the presence of a person authorised by the Authority, of a safe deposit box held on behalf of the person named in the order. (2) An order under subsection (1) shall be served on the person named in the order. (3) Where an order is made under paragraph (a) or (b) of subsection (1), the Authority may give notice of the order to all persons who may hold or be vested with property belonging to or held on behalf of the person named in the order. (4) Where a notice is published under subsection (3), a person who allows, procures or facilitates the disposal of money or property belonging to the person named in the order, commits an offence. (5) An order under paragraph (a) or (b) of subsection (1), shall remain in force until the final determination of the matter involving the person named in the order. - 79 Verify source ↗
Realisation of property
AI-assisted research summary: If a freezing order under section 78 is in place and not discharged or appealed, the Court may order the Attorney-General to manage, possess, dispose of, or receive payment for the property, and may require a possessor to hand it over.
Section 79—Realisation of property (1) Where an order freezing assets is made under subsection (1) of section 78, and the freezing order is not discharged or not subject to an appeal, the Court shall on an application by the Attorney-General, direct (a) the Attorney-General to manage the property; (b) the Attorney-General to take possession of the realisable property subject to the conditions specified by the Court; (c) a person who has possession of the realisable property to surrender possession of the property to the Attorney-General; (d) the Attorney-General to dispose of the realisable property in a manner as directed by the Court; or (e) a person who holds an interest in the property to make payment to the Attorney-General in respect of a beneficial interest held by the respondent or the recipient of a gift specified in this Act as the Court shall direct. (2) The Court shall transfer, grant or extinguish the interest in the property on payment being made under paragraph (e) of subsection (1). (3) The Court shall give a person who holds interest in the property reasonable opportunity to make representation to the Court before making an order under paragraph (b), (c), (d) or (e) of subsection (1) and also under subsection (2). - 80 Verify source ↗
Utilisation of proceeds of realisable property Industry Forum
AI-assisted research summary: The Court must direct how realised proceeds are split: 70% to the Authority, 10% to the Office of the Attorney-General, and the remainder to the Consolidated Fund.
Section 80—Utilisation of proceeds of realisable property (1) The Court shall direct that seventy per cent of the amount realised be paid to the Authority to defray the expenses of the Authority. (2) The Court shall direct the Attorney-General to pay ten per cent of the amount realised to the Office of the Attorney-General. (3) The Attorney-General shall, after payment is made under subsections (1) and (2), pay the rest into the Consolidated Fund. Industry Forum - 81 Verify source ↗
Establishment of Industry Forum
AI-assisted research summary: This section creates an Industry Forum, lets the Authority name or remove a facilitator, and allows industry participants and officials to take part.
Section 81—Establishment of Industry Forum (1) There is established under this Act, an Industry Forum which is a platform that periodically brings the industry together to discuss matters of common interest to the industry. (2) The Authority may designate a body by notice within the industry to be the facilitator for the Forum if the Authority is satisfied that the body (a) is capable of performing the function required under this section; (b) has the administrative capacity to facilitate the Forum; and (c) has agreed in writing to be the facilitator for the Forum. (3) A cybersecurity service provider, service provider, telecommunications network operator and any other person concerned with matters of the industry may participate in the activities of the Forum. (4) The Authority may decide that a body that was previously designated to be the facilitator for the Forum shall no longer be the facilitator if the Authority is satisfied that the body has ceased to meet the requirements set out in subsection (2). (5) A designation or withdrawal of designation under this section shall take effect from the time specified by the Authority. (6) Until the Authority designates a facilitator, the Authority shall facilitate the meetings of the Forum. (7) The Minister and the Authority shall participate in the Forum as observers. - 82 Verify source ↗
Industry code Miscellaneous Provisions
AI-assisted research summary: An Industry Forum may prepare a voluntary industry code, but it only takes effect when the Authority registers it.
Section 82—Industry code (1) An Industry Forum may (a) on its own initiative, or (b) upon request by the Authority, prepare a voluntary industry code to deal with a matter provided for in this Act. (2) The code is not effective until the code is registered by the Authority. (3) The Authority shall register a voluntary industry code if the code is consistent with (a) the objects of the Authority, (b) Regulations, standards and Guidelines made under this Act, (c) the provisions of this Act which are relevant to the particular matter or activity. (4) The Authority may refuse to register a code if the Authority is satisfied that sufficient opportunity for public consultation has not been given in the development of the code by the Forum. (5) If registration of the code is refused, the Authority shall notify the Forum in writing and provide the reasons for the refusal within thirty days of the refusal. (6) If the Authority (a) fails to register a code within thirty days after the date that the code was submitted for registration, and (b) does not give the Forum notice of the refusal to register the code and the reasons for the refusal within the required period the Authority shall be deemed to have registered the code. Miscellaneous Provisions - 83 Verify source ↗
International co-operation
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must promote cyberspace security through international cooperation and maintain a 24/7 contact point for cybercrime assistance.
Section 83—International co-operation (1) The Authority shall in the performance of the functions of the Authority, promote the security of cyberspace through international co-operation. (2) The Authority shall implement relevant measures for the effective implementation and enforcement of international treaties on cybercrime and cybersecurity, of which Ghana is a signatory. (3) For the purpose of international co-operation, the Authority shall designate and maintain a 24/7 contact point to tackle cybercrime. (4) The 24/7 contact point shall provide assistance in respect of (a) technical advice to other contact points; (b) the expeditious preservation of data and evidence; (c) information on the detection of suspects and related matters; (d) the immediate transmission of legal requests in accordance with applicable laws and treaties; and (e) any other matter related to paragraphs (a) to (d). - 84 Verify source ↗
Immunity of members of the Authority
AI-assisted research summary: Board members and officers of the Authority are immune from civil liability for good-faith actions or omissions while performing the Authority’s functions.
Section 84—Immunity of members of the Authority A member of the Board and an officer of the Authority shall enjoy immunity from civil liability for actions taken or omitted to be taken in good faith in the performance of the functions of the Authority. - 85 Verify source ↗
Cybersecurity Risk Register
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must create and keep an electronic Cybersecurity Risk Register, and it must protect the information in it from disclosure except in limited cases.
Section 85—Cybersecurity Risk Register (1) The Authority shall establish and maintain an electronic Cybersecurity Risk Register for the country. (2) The Register shall contain details of the (a) personal data of the owners of critical information infrastructure; (b) identified and potential risks; and (c) level of impact of risk. (3) Information contained in the Register shall not be disclosed to any person other than an employee of the Authority who is responsible for keeping the Register. (4) Despite subsection (3), the Authority may disclose information contained in the Register if required by law. (5) Subject to article 135 of the Constitution, nothing in this enactment shall preclude the Authority from pleading in proceedings relating to information held in the custody or records of the Authority, that the production or disclosure of that information may be (a) prejudicial to the security of the State; or (b) injurious to the public interest. - 86 Verify source ↗
Request for information
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority may direct certain infrastructure operators, sectoral response teams, and service providers in writing to give relevant information for cybersecurity purposes.
Section 86—Request for information (1) The Authority may in writing direct (a) a person who owns or operates a critical information infrastructure, (b) a designated Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Team, or (c) a service provider to provide the Authority with relevant information for the purpose of ensuring the cybersecurity of the country. (2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. (3) Where a contravention under subsection (1) continues, the person is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. - 87 Verify source ↗
Blocking, filtering and taking down illegal content
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority may, on a court order, authorise a service provider to block, filter, or take down illegal content and certain phone numbers used maliciously to undermine cybersecurity.
Section 87—Blocking, filtering and taking down of illegal content (1) The Authority may, on the order of a court, authorise a service provider to block, filter or take down illegal content and phone numbers used for a malicious purpose which seeks to undermine the cybersecurity of the country. (2) The grounds for blocking, filtering and taking down illegal content and phone numbers include (a) the protection of national security; (b) the protection of children; (c) the public safety; (d) the prevention or investigation of a disorder or a crime; (e) the protection of health; (f) the protection of reputation or the rights of an individual; (g) the prevention of the disclosure of information received in confidence; (h) compliance with a legal order; or (i) any other ground that the Authority may determine. (3) A service provider who fails to comply with an authorisation made pursuant to subsection (1) is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. (4) Where a contravention under subsection (1) continues, the service provider concerned is liable to pay to the-Authority the administrative penalty specified, in the Second Schedule. (5) Where, a contravention under subsection (1) continues after one month, a person commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than one thousand penalty units and not more than ten thousand penalty units or to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more five years, or to both. - 88 Verify source ↗
Co-operation
AI-assisted research summary: Public and private institutions must cooperate with the Authority to help ensure the country's cybersecurity.
Section 88—Co-operation A p:ublic institution or a private institution shall co-operate with the Authority for the purpose of ensuring the cybersecurity of the country. - 89 Verify source ↗
Oath of Secrecy
AI-assisted research summary: Specified Authority leaders and staff must take an oath before taking office and must not disclose Authority information except in listed cases.
Section 89—Oath of Secrecy (1) The members of the Board, the Joint Cybersecurity Committee and staff of the Authority shall, before assuming office, take and subscribe to the Oath of Secrecy as set out in the Third Schedule. (2) A person referred to under subsection (1) shall not disclose any information obtained by the Authority. (3) Despite subsection (2), a person referred to in subsection (1), may disclose information obtained by the Authority if that information is required (a) to enable the Authority carry out the functions of the Authority; (b) for the prevention or detection of an offence; (c) in compliance with the discharge of an obligation under an international agreement; (d) to comply with a court order; or (e) in accordance with the Right to Information Act, 2019 (Act 989). (4) A person who contravenes subsection (2) commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than two hundred and fifty penalty units and not more than five hundred penalty units or to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than two years or to both. - 90 Verify source ↗
Trial court and procedural powers
AI-assisted research summary: The High Court may try offences under this Act and other matters arising under it, and procedural powers from the Electronic Transactions Act, 2008 and other applicable laws apply.
Section 90—Trial court and procedural powers (1) The High Court shall have jurisdiction (a) to try an offence under this Act; and (b) in any other matter arising under this Act. (2) The procedural powers specified under the Electronic Transactions Act, 2008 (Act 772) and any other applicable enactment shall apply under this Act. - 91 Verify source ↗
Guidelines
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority must publish guidelines it considers necessary for critical information infrastructure matters.
Section 91—Guidelines The Authority shall publish guidelines that the Authority considers necessary for (a) the identification of critical information infrastructure; (b) the registration of critical information infrastructure; (e) the protection of critical information infrastructure; (d) the management of critical information infrastructure; (e) access to, transfer and control of data in critical information infrastructure; (f) the storage or archiving of data or information in critical information infrastructure; (g) reporting incidents involving critical information infrastructure; and (h) any other matter required for the adequate protection of critical information infrastructure. - 92 Verify source ↗
Directives
AI-assisted research summary: The Authority may issue directives to critical infrastructure owners and cybersecurity service providers, and those who do not comply may have to pay an administrative penalty.
Section 92—Directives (1) The Authority may issue directives to an owner of a critical information infrastructure, a cybersecurity service provider or service provider for the purpose of ensuring the cybersecurity of the country. (2) An owner of a critical information infrastructure, a cybersecurity service provider or a service provider who fails to comply with the directives issued under subsection (1) is liable to pay to the Authority the administrative penalty specified in the Second Schedule. - 93 Verify source ↗
Administrative penalties for contraventions
AI-assisted research summary: When imposing an administrative penalty under this Act, the Authority must consider the service provider’s size, the sector’s criticality, the impact of the contravention, and any other relevant criterion set by the Minister.
Section 93—Administrative penalties for contraventions The Authority shall, for the purpose of imposing an administrative penalty under this Act, take into account (a) the size of the service provider concerned; (b) the criticality of the sector; (e) the impact of the contravention; and (d) any other relevant criterion determined by the Minister. - 94 Verify source ↗
Unlawful access
AI-assisted research summary: A person must not, without lawful authority, retrieve subscriber information or intercept traffic data or content data.
Section 94—Unlawful access A person who, without lawful authority retrieves subscriber information or intercepts traffic data or content data, commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than two thousand five hundred penalty units and not more than fifteen thousand penalty units or to a term of imprisonment of not less than two years and not more than five years or, to both. - 95 Verify source ↗
General penalty
AI-assisted research summary: A person who breaks a section of the Act that has no specific penalty commits an offence and can be fined, imprisoned, or both.
Section 95—General penalty A person who contravenes a section of this Act for which a penalty is not provided commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine of not less than two thousand, five hundred penalty units and not more than twenty thousand penalty units or to a term of imprisonment of not less than two years and not more than five years or to both. - 96 Verify source ↗
Regulations
AI-assisted research summary: The Minister may make regulations, by legislative instrument, about the matters listed in this section.
Section 96—Regulations The Minister may, by legislative instrument. make Regulations to provide for (a) the forms for applications; (b) authorisations and licences; (e) the use of equipment to intercept or disable a digital technology service or product by authorised persons to execute an interception warrant; (d) accreditation of cybersecurity professionals and practitioners; (e) the operaionalisation[sic] of a platform for cross-sector engagement on matters of cybersecurity for effective coordination and cooperation between key public institutions and the private sector; (f) the promotion and development of cybersecurity to ensure a secured and resilient digital ecosystem; (g) certification of cybersecurity products and technology solutions; (h) implementation of early warning system; (i) receipt of complaints by the National Computer Emergency Response Team from Sectoral Computer Emergency Response Teams, citizens and other similar international bodies; (j) the modalities for (i) the preservation of data; and (ii) the retention of data; (k) dispute resolution; (l) amendment of the administrative penalties specified m the Second Schedule; and (m) any other matters necessary for the effective implementation of this Act. - 97 Verify source ↗
Interpretation
AI-assisted research summary: This section defines key terms used in the Act, including “Authority,” “Board,” “child,” “computer,” “computer system,” and several cybersecurity-related terms.
Section 97—Interpretation In this Act unless the context otherwise requires, "Authority" means the Cybersecurity Authority established under section 2; "Board" means the governing body of the Authority established under section 5; "24/7 contact point" means the focal point of contact that works twenty-hours daily to facilitate or directly provide technical advice, preserve data, collect evidence, give legal information and locate suspects; "child" means a person below the age of eighteen years; "Committee" means the Joint Cybersecurity Committee established under section 13; "computer" means an electronic, magnetic, optical, electrochemical, or other data processing device performing logical, arithmetic, or storage functions, and includes any data storage facility or communications facility directly related to or operating in conjunction with such device; "Computer Emergency Response Team" includes a group of experts who are tasked with operations supporting the detection, analysis and containment of a cyber incident and the response and involves qualified personnel, technology systems and processes to handle incident response operations; "computer system" means an arrangement of interconnected computers that is designed to perform one or more specific functions, and includes (a) an information system; and (b) an operational technology system, a programmable logic controller, a supervisory control and data acquisition system, or a distributed control system; "content data" means the communication content of the communication, that is, the meaning or purport of the communication, or the message or information being conveyed by the communication other than traffic data; "critical information infrastructure" means a computer or computer system designated under subsection (1) of section 35; "cybercrime" means the use of cyberspace, information technology or electronic facilities to commit a crime; "cybersecurity" means the state in which a computer or computer system is protected from unauthorised access or attack for the purpose of ensuring that (a) the computer or computer system continues to be available and operational (b) the integrity of the computer or computer system is maintained; and (c) the integrity and confidentiality of information stored in, processed by or transmitted through the computer or computer system is maintained; "cybersecurity activity" means any activity engaged in to protect a digital system or a digital service; "cybersecurity community" means the public and private sector stakeholders who engage in a cybersecurity activity; "cybersecurity incident" means any act or attempt, successful or unsuccessful, to gain unauthorised access to, disrupt or misuse an information system or information stored on such information system; "cybersecurity practitioner" means an individual or a firm that protects a computer system or digital service; "cybersecurity products" includes (a) a computer, (b) a computer system, (c) a computer programme, or (d) a computer service designed for, or purported to be designed for, ensuring or enhancing the cybersecurity of another computer or computer system; "cybersecurity professional" means a person accredited under this Act to perform a cybersecurity-related professional function; "cybersecurity service" means the services specified in the First Schedule; "cybersecurity service provider" means a person licensed under this Act to provide a cybersecurity service: "Cybersecurity Risk Register" means a catalogue or database of cybersecurity threats which are published by the Authority pursuant to section 85; "cybersecurity threat" means an unauthorised effort to adversely impact the security, availability, confidentiality, or integrity of an information system or information that is stored on, processed by, or transiting an information system; "cyberspace" means the connected network of information technology infrastructure comprising telecom networks, the internet, computer networks, information systems, information processing and control systems and databases where people perform social acts without being limited by space and time; "designated officer" means any of the following persons: (a) the Director-General of the Bureau of National Investigations; (b) the National Security Coordinator; (c) the Inspector-General of Police; (d) the Commissioner-General of the Ghana Revenue Authority; (e) the Director-General, Defence Intelligence; (f) the Executive Director, Economic and Organised Crime Office; (g) the Director-General, Narcotics Control Commission; (h) the Comptroller-General, Immigration Service; (i) the Director-General, Research Department of the Ministry of Foreign Affairs; (j) the Chief Executive Officer of the Financial Intelligence Centre; or (k) the Attorney-General, acting upon the request of a competent authority of a foreign country; "digital ecosystem" means the system of technical and material facilities to create, transmit, collect, process, archive and exchange information in national cyberspace comprising: (a) transmission systems including the national transmission system, internationally connected transmission systems, satellite systems and transmission systems of enterprises providing services on telecom networks and on the internet and other added value services in cyberspace; (b) core service systems comprising the national information flow and navigation system, the national domain name resolution system, the national authentication system, service supply systems for internet connection and access of service providers on telecom networks, the internet and providers of other added value services in cyberspace; (c) information technology services and applications comprising online services, and information technology applications with network connection serving management and operations by agencies, organisations and important financial and economic groups, and the national database; (d) online services comprise e-government, e-commerce, websites, online forums, social networking and blogs; and (e) infrastructure of smart cities, the internet of things, complex virtual reality systems, cloud computing, large data systems, fast data systems and artificial intelligence systems; "Director-General" means the person appointed under section 15; "e-services" means goods and services provided electronically by a service provid
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Cybersecurity Act, 2020 (Act 1038)
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