Investigatory Powers Act 2016

Investigatory Powers Act 2016 An Act to make provision about the interception of communications, equipment interference and the acquisition and retention of communications data, bulk personal datasets and other information; to make provision about the treatment of material held as a result of such interception, equipment interference or acquisition or retention; to establish the Investigatory Powers Commissioner and other Judicial Commissioners and make provision about them and other oversight arrangements; to make further provision about investigatory powers and national security; to amend sections 3 and 5 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994; and for connected purposes. Be it enacted by the Queen's most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as follows:— This Act sets out the extent to which certain investigatory powers may be used to interfere with privacy. This Part imposes certain duties in relation to privacy and contains other protections for privacy. These other protections include offences and penalties in relation to— the unlawful interception of communications, and the unlawful obtaining of communications data. This Part also abolishes and restricts various general powers to obtain communications data and restricts the circumstances in which equipment interference, and certain requests about the interception of communications, can take place. Further protections for privacy— can be found, in particular, in the regimes provided for by Parts 2 to 7 and in the oversight arrangements in Part 8, and also exist— by virtue of the Human Rights Act 1998, in section 170 of the Data Protection Act 2018 (unlawful obtaining etc of personal data), in section 48 of the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 (offence of interception or disclosure of messages), in sections 1 to 3A of the Computer Misuse Act 1990 (computer misuse offences), in the common law offence of misconduct in public office, and elsewhere in the law. The regimes provided for by Parts 2 to 7B are as follows— Part 2 and Chapter 1 of Part 6 set out circumstances (including under a warrant) in which the interception of communications is lawful and make further provision about the interception of communications and the treatment of material obtained in connection with it, Part 3 and Chapter 2 of Part 6 set out circumstances in which the obtaining of communications data is lawful in pursuance of an authorisation or under a warrant and make further provision about the obtaining and treatment of such data, Part 4 makes provision for the retention of certain communications data in pursuance of a notice, Part 5 and Chapter 3 of Part 6 deal with equipment interference warrants, and Parts 7 to 7B deal with bulk personal dataset warrants and authorisations. As to the rest of the Act— Part 8 deals with oversight arrangements for regimes in this Act and elsewhere, and Part 9 contains miscellaneous and general provisions including amendments to sections 3 and 5 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 and provisions about national security and combined warrants and authorisations. Subsection (2) applies where a public authority is deciding whether— to issue, renew or cancel a warrant under Part 2, 5, 6 , 7 or 7B, to modify such a warrant, to approve a decision to issue, renew or modify such a warrant, to grant, approve or cancel an authorisation under Part 3, to give a notice in pursuance of such an authorisation or under Part 4 or section 252, 253 or 257, to vary or revoke such a notice, to approve a decision to give or vary a notice under Part 4 or section 252, 253 or 257, to approve the use of criteria under section 153, 194 or 222, to give an authorisation under section 219(3)(b), to approve a decision to give such an authorisation, ... to grant, renew or cancel an authorisation under Part 7A, to approve a decision to grant or renew such an authorisation, or to apply for or otherwise seek any issue, grant, giving, modification, variation or renewal of a kind falling within paragraph (a), (b), (d), (e), (f) , (i) or (ja). The public authority must have regard to— whether what is sought to be achieved by the warrant, authorisation or notice could reasonably be achieved by other less intrusive means, whether the level of protection to be applied in relation to any obtaining of information by virtue of the warrant, authorisation or notice is higher because of the particular sensitivity of that information, the public interest in the integrity and security of telecommunication systems and postal services, and any other aspects of the public interest in the protection of privacy. The duties under subsection (2)— apply so far as they are relevant in the particular context, and are subject to the need to have regard to other considerations that are also relevant in that context. The other considerations may, in particular, include— the interests of national security or of the economic well-being of the United Kingdom, the public interest in preventing or detecting serious crime, other considerations which are relevant to— whether the conduct authorised or required by the warrant, authorisation or notice is proportionate, or whether it is necessary to act for a purpose provided for by this Act, the requirements of the Human Rights Act 1998, and other requirements of public law. For the purposes of subsection (2)(b), examples of sensitive information include— items subject to legal privilege, any information identifying or confirming a source of journalistic information, and relevant confidential information within the meaning given by paragraph 2(4) of Schedule 7 (certain information held in confidence and consisting of personal records, journalistic material or communications between Members of Parliament and their constituents). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . A person commits an offence if— the person intentionally intercepts a communication in the course of its transmission by means of— a public telecommunication system, a private telecommunication system, or a public postal service, the interception is carried out in the United Kingdom, and the person does not have lawful authority to carry out the interception. But it is not an offence under subsection (1) for a person to intercept a communication in the course of its transmission by means of a private telecommunication system if the person— is a person with a right to control the operation or use of the system, or has the express or implied consent of such a person to carry out the interception. Sections 4 and 5 contain provision about— the meaning of “interception”, and when interception is to be regarded as carried out in the United Kingdom. Section 6 contains provision about when a person has lawful authority to carry out an interception. For the meaning of the terms used in subsection (1)(a)(i) to (iii), see sections 261 and 262. A person who is guilty of an offence under subsection (1) is liable— on summary conviction in England and Wales, to a fine; on summary conviction in Scotland or Northern Ireland, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum; on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to a fine, or to both. No proceedings for any offence which is an offence by virtue of this section may be instituted— in England and Wales, except by or with the consent of the Director of Public Prosecutions; in Northern Ireland, except by or with the consent of the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland. For the purposes of this Act, a person intercepts a communication in the course of its transmission by means of a telecommunication system if, and only if— the person does a relevant act in relation to the system, and the effect of the relevant act is to make any content of the communication available, at a relevant time, to a person who is not the sender or intended recipient of the communication. For the meaning of “content” in relation to a communication, see section 261(6). In this section “relevant act”, in relation to a telecommunication system, means— modifying, or interfering with, the system or its operation; monitoring transmissions made by means of the system; monitoring transmissions made by wireless telegraphy to or from apparatus that is part of the system. For the purposes of this section references to modifying a telecommunication system include references to attaching any apparatus to, or otherwise modifying or interfering with— any part of the system, or any wireless telegraphy apparatus used for making transmissions to or from apparatus that is part of the system. In this section “relevant time”, in relation to a communication transmitted by means of a telecommunication system, means— any time while the communication is being transmitted, and any time when the communication is stored in or by the system (whether before or after its transmission). For the purposes of this section, the cases in which any content of a communication is to be taken to be made available to a person at a relevant time include any case in which any of the communication is diverted or recorded at a relevant time so as to make any content of the communication available to a person after that time. In this section “wireless telegraphy” and “wireless telegraphy apparatus” have the same meaning as in the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 (see sections 116 and 117 of that Act). Section 125(3) of the Postal Services Act 2000 applies for the purposes of determining for the purposes of this Act whether a postal item is in the course of its transmission by means of a postal service as it applies for the purposes of determining for the purposes of that Act whether a postal packet is in course of transmission by post. For the purposes of this Act the interception of a communication is carried out in the United Kingdom if, and only if— the relevant act or, in the case of a postal item, the interception is carried out by conduct within the United Kingdom, and the communication is intercepted— in the course of its transmission by means of a public telecommunication system or a public postal service, or in the course of its transmission by means of a private telecommunication system in a case where the sender or intended recipient of the communication is in the United Kingdom. References in this Act to the interception of a communication do not include references to the interception of any communication broadcast for general reception. References in this Act to the interception of a communication in the course of its transmission by means of a postal service do not include references to— any conduct that takes place in relation only to so much of the communication as consists of any postal data comprised in, included as part of, attached to, or logically associated with a communication (whether by the sender or otherwise) for the purposes of any postal service by means of which it is being or may be transmitted, or any conduct, in connection with conduct falling within paragraph (a), that gives a person who is neither the sender nor the intended recipient only so much access to a communication as is necessary for the purpose of identifying such postal data. For the meaning of “postal data”, see section 262. For the purposes of this Act, a person has lawful authority to carry out an interception if, and only if— the interception is carried out in accordance with— a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 2, or a bulk interception warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 6, the interception is authorised by any of sections 44 to 52, or in the case of a communication stored in or by a telecommunication system, the interception— is carried out in accordance with a targeted equipment interference warrant under Part 5 or a bulk equipment interference warrant under Chapter 3 of Part 6, is in the exercise of any statutory power that is exercised for the purpose of obtaining information or taking possession of any document or other property, or is carried out in accordance with a court order made for that purpose. Conduct which has lawful authority for the purposes of this Act by virtue of subsection (1)(a) or (b) is to be treated as lawful for all other purposes. Any other conduct which— is carried out in accordance with a warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 2 or a bulk interception warrant, or is authorised by any of sections 44 to 52, is to be treated as lawful for all purposes. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may serve a monetary penalty notice on a person if conditions A and B are met. A monetary penalty notice is a notice requiring the person on whom it is served to pay to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner (“the Commissioner”) a monetary penalty of an amount determined by the Commissioner and specified in the notice. Condition A is that the Commissioner considers that— the person has intercepted, in the United Kingdom, any communication in the course of its transmission by means of a public telecommunication system, the person did not have lawful authority to carry out the interception, and the person was not, at the time of the interception, making an attempt to act in accordance with an interception warrant which might, in the opinion of the Commissioner, explain the interception. Condition B is that the Commissioner does not consider that the person has committed an offence under section 3(1). The amount of a monetary penalty determined by the Commissioner under this section must not exceed £50,000. Schedule 1 (which makes further provision about monetary penalty notices) has effect. In this section “interception warrant” means— a bulk interception warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 6. For the meaning of “interception” and other key expressions used in this section, see sections 4 to 6. An interception of a communication is actionable at the suit or instance of— the sender of the communication, or the recipient, or intended recipient, of the communication, if conditions A to D are met. Condition A is that the interception is carried out in the United Kingdom. Condition B is that the communication is intercepted— in the course of its transmission by means of a private telecommunication system, or in the course of its transmission, by means of a public telecommunication system, to or from apparatus that is part of a private telecommunication system. Condition C is that the interception is carried out by, or with the express or implied consent of, a person who has the right to control the operation or use of the private telecommunication system. Condition D is that the interception is carried out without lawful authority. This section applies to a request for any authorities of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom to carry out the interception of communications sent by, or intended for, an individual who the person making the request believes will be in the British Islands at the time of the interception. A request to which this section applies may not be made by or on behalf of a person in the United Kingdom unless— a targeted interception warrant has been issued under Chapter 1 of Part 2 authorising the person to whom it is addressed to secure the interception of communications sent by, or intended for, that individual, or a targeted examination warrant has been issued under that Chapter authorising the person to whom it is addressed to carry out the selection of the content of such communications for examination. This section applies to— a request for assistance in accordance with an international mutual assistance agreement so far as the assistance is in connection with, or in the form of, the interception of communications. A request to which this section applies may not be made by or on behalf of a person in the United Kingdom to the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom unless a mutual assistance warrant has been issued under Chapter 1 of Part 2 authorising the making of the request. Subsection (2) does not apply in the case of a request for assistance in connection with, or in the form of, interception of a communication stored in or by a telecommunication system if the request is made— in the exercise of a statutory power that is exercised for the purpose of obtaining information or taking possession of any document or other property, or in accordance with a court order that is made for that purpose. In this section— ... “international mutual assistance agreement” means an international agreement which— relates to the provision of mutual assistance in connection with, or in the form of, the interception of communications, requires the issue of a warrant, order or equivalent instrument in cases in which assistance is given, and is designated as an international mutual assistance agreement by regulations made by the Secretary of State. A relevant person who, without lawful authority, knowingly or recklessly obtains communications data from— a telecommunications operator which is not wholly or mainly funded out of public funds, or a postal operator, is guilty of an offence. In this section “relevant person” means a person who holds an office, rank or position with a relevant public authority (within the meaning of Part 3). Subsection (1) does not apply to a relevant person who shows that the person acted in the reasonable belief that the person had lawful authority to obtain the communications data. The following are examples of cases where a relevant person has lawful authority to obtain communications data from a telecommunications operator or postal operator— where the relevant person’s obtaining of the communications data is lawful for all purposes in accordance with section 81(1); any other case where the relevant person obtains the communications data in the exercise of a statutory power of the relevant public authority; where the operator lawfully provides the communications data to the relevant person otherwise than pursuant to the exercise of a statutory power of the relevant public authority (whether or not in the exercise of a statutory power to disclose); where the communications data is obtained in accordance with a court order or other judicial authorisation; where the communications data had been published before the relevant person obtained it; where the communications data is obtained by the relevant person for the purpose of enabling, or facilitating, the making of a response to a call made to the emergency services. In subsection (3A)— “emergency services” means— police, fire, rescue and ambulance services, and His Majesty’s Coastguard; “publish” means make available to the public or a section of the public (whether or not on a commercial basis). A person guilty of an offence under this section is liable— on summary conviction in England and Wales— to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court (or 6 months, if the offence was committed before 2 May 2022), or to a fine, or to both; on summary conviction in Scotland— to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months, or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, on summary conviction in Northern Ireland— to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, or Schedule 2 (which repeals certain information powers so far as they enable public authorities to secure the disclosure by a telecommunications operator or postal operator of communications data without the consent of the operator) has effect. Any general information power which— would (apart from this subsection) enable a public authority to secure the disclosure by a telecommunications operator or postal operator of communications data without the consent of the operator, and does not involve a court order or other judicial authorisation or warrant ..., is to be read as not enabling the public authority to secure such a disclosure. Subsection (2) is subject to section 352(1) of the Finance (No. 2) Act 2023 (no restriction on tax related powers) and subsection (2B). Subsection (2) does not apply to the exercise by a specified public authority, otherwise than in the course of a criminal investigation, of a general information power which is a regulatory or supervisory power. For the purposes of subsection (2B), “criminal investigation” means an investigation of any criminal conduct, including— an investigation of alleged or suspected criminal conduct, and an investigation of whether criminal conduct has taken place. For the purposes of subsection (2B), the exercise of a general information power which is a regulatory or supervisory power is treated as not being in the course of a criminal investigation if at the time of the exercise of the power the investigation is not being conducted with a view to seeking a criminal prosecution. The Secretary of State may by regulations modify any enactment in consequence of subsection (2). In this section “general information power” means— in relation to disclosure by a telecommunications operator, any power to obtain information or documents (however expressed) which— is conferred by or under an enactment other than this Act or the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, and does not deal (whether alone or with other matters) specifically with telecommunications operators or any class of telecommunications operators, and in relation to disclosure by a postal operator, any power to obtain information or documents (however expressed) which— does not deal (whether alone or with other matters) specifically with postal operators or any class of postal operators. In this section “specified public authority” means a public authority which is— listed in Schedule 2A, or listed in column 1 of the table in Schedule 4. The Secretary of State or the Treasury may by regulations modify Schedule 2A by— adding a public authority to, or removing a public authority from, the list in that Schedule. “criminal conduct” means conduct which constitutes an offence under the law of any part of the United Kingdom, “power” includes part of a power, “regulatory or supervisory power” means any power (however expressed) to obtain information or documents which— is exercisable in connection with— the regulation of persons or activities, the checking or monitoring of compliance with requirements, prohibitions or standards imposed by or under an enactment, or the enforcement of any requirement or prohibition imposed by or under an enactment, and references to powers include duties (and references to enabling and exercising are to be read as including references to requiring and performing). An intelligence service may not, for the purpose of obtaining communications, private information or equipment data, engage in conduct which could be authorised by an equipment interference warrant except under the authority of such a warrant if— the intelligence service considers that the conduct would (unless done under lawful authority) constitute one or more offences under sections 1 to 3A of the Computer Misuse Act 1990 (computer misuse offences), and there is a British Islands connection. For the purpose of this section, there is a British Islands connection if— any of the conduct would take place in the British Islands (regardless of the location of the equipment which would, or may, be interfered with), the intelligence service believes that any of the equipment which would, or may, be interfered with would, or may, be in the British Islands at some time while the interference is taking place, or a purpose of the interference is to obtain— communications sent by, or to, a person who is, or whom the intelligence service believes to be, for the time being in the British Islands, private information relating to an individual who is, or whom the intelligence service believes to be, for the time being in the British Islands, or equipment data which forms part of, or is connected with, communications or private information falling within sub-paragraph (i) or (ii). This section does not restrict the ability of the head of an intelligence service to apply for an equipment interference warrant in cases where— the intelligence service does not consider that the conduct for which it is seeking authorisation would (unless done under lawful authority) constitute one or more offences under sections 1 to 3A of the Computer Misuse Act 1990, or there is no British Islands connection. “communications”, “private information” and “equipment data” have the same meaning as in Part 5 (see section 135); “equipment interference warrant” means— a targeted equipment interference warrant under Part 5; a bulk equipment interference warrant under Chapter 3 of Part 6. A person may not, for the purpose of obtaining communications, private information or equipment data, make an application under section 93 of the Police Act 1997 for authorisation to engage in conduct which could be authorised by a targeted equipment interference warrant under Part 5 if the applicant considers that the conduct would (unless done under lawful authority) constitute one or more offences under sections 1 to 3A of the Computer Misuse Act 1990 (computer misuse offences). In this section, “communications”, “private information” and “equipment data” have the same meaning as in Part 5 (see section 135). There are three kinds of warrant that may be issued under this Chapter— targeted interception warrants (see subsection (2)), targeted examination warrants (see subsection (3)), and mutual assistance warrants (see subsection (4)). A targeted interception warrant is a warrant which authorises or requires the person to whom it is addressed to secure, by any conduct described in the warrant, any one or more of the following— the interception, in the course of their transmission by means of a postal service or telecommunication system, of communications described in the warrant; the obtaining of secondary data from communications transmitted by means of a postal service or telecommunication system and described in the warrant (see section 16); the disclosure, in any manner described in the warrant, of anything obtained under the warrant to the person to whom the warrant is addressed or to any person acting on that person's behalf. A targeted examination warrant is a warrant which authorises the person to whom it is addressed to carry out the selection of relevant content for examination, in breach of the prohibition in section 152(4) (prohibition on seeking to identify communications of individuals in the British Islands). In this Part “relevant content”, in relation to a targeted examination warrant, means any content of communications intercepted by an interception authorised or required by a bulk interception warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 6. A mutual assistance warrant is a warrant which authorises or requires the person to whom it is addressed to secure, by any conduct described in the warrant, any one or more of the following— the making of a request, in accordance with ... an international mutual assistance agreement, for the provision of any assistance of a kind described in the warrant in connection with, or in the form of, an interception of communications; the provision to the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, in accordance with such an ... agreement, of any assistance of a kind described in the warrant in connection with, or in the form of, an interception of communications; A targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant also authorises the following conduct (in addition to the conduct described in the warrant)— any conduct which it is necessary to undertake in order to do what is expressly authorised or required by the warrant, including— the interception of communications not described in the warrant, and conduct for obtaining secondary data from such communications; any conduct by any person which is conduct in pursuance of a requirement imposed by or on behalf of the person to whom the warrant is addressed to be provided with assistance in giving effect to the warrant; any conduct for obtaining related systems data from any postal operator or telecommunications operator. For the purposes of subsection (5)(c)— “related systems data”, in relation to a warrant, means systems data relating to a relevant communication or to the sender or recipient, or intended recipient, of a relevant communication (whether or not a person), and “relevant communication”, in relation to a warrant, means— any communication intercepted in accordance with the warrant in the course of its transmission by means of a postal service or telecommunication system, or any communication from which secondary data is obtained under the warrant. For provision enabling the combination of targeted interception warrants with certain other warrants or authorisations (including targeted examination warrants), see Schedule 8. This section has effect for the purposes of this Part. In relation to a communication transmitted by means of a postal service, references to obtaining secondary data from the communication are references to obtaining such data in the course of the transmission of the communication (as to which, see section 4(7)). In relation to a communication transmitted by means of a telecommunication system, references to obtaining secondary data from the communication are references to obtaining such data— while the communication is being transmitted, or at any time when the communication is stored in or by the system (whether before or after its transmission). “Secondary data”— in relation to a communication transmitted by means of a postal service, means any data falling within subsection (5); in relation to a communication transmitted by means of a telecommunication system, means any data falling within subsection (5) or (6). The data falling within this subsection is systems data which is comprised in, included as part of, attached to or logically associated with the communication (whether by the sender or otherwise). The data falling within this subsection is identifying data which— is comprised in, included as part of, attached to or logically associated with the communication (whether by the sender or otherwise), is capable of being logically separated from the remainder of the communication, and if it were so separated, would not reveal anything of what might reasonably be considered to be the meaning (if any) of the communication, disregarding any meaning arising from the fact of the communication or from any data relating to the transmission of the communication. For the meaning of “systems data” and “identifying data”, see section 263. A warrant under this Chapter may relate to— a particular person or organisation, or a single set of premises. In addition, a targeted interception warrant or targeted examination warrant may relate to— a group of persons who share a common purpose or who carry on, or may carry on, a particular activity; more than one person or organisation, or more than one set of premises, where the conduct authorised or required by the warrant is for the purposes of a single investigation or operation; testing or training activities. In subsection (2)(c) “testing or training activities” means— in relation to a targeted interception warrant— the testing, maintenance or development of apparatus, systems or other capabilities relating to the interception of communications in the course of their transmission by means of a telecommunication system or to the obtaining of secondary data from communications transmitted by means of such a system, or the training of persons who carry out, or are likely to carry out, such interception or the obtaining of such data; in relation to a targeted examination warrant— the testing, maintenance or development of apparatus, systems or other capabilities relating to the selection of relevant content for examination, or the training of persons who carry out, or are likely to carry out, the selection of relevant content for examination. Each of the following is an “intercepting authority” for the purposes of this Part— a person who is the head of an intelligence service; the Director General of the National Crime Agency; the Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis; the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland; the chief constable of the Police Service of Scotland; the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs; the Chief of Defence Intelligence; a person who is the competent authority of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of ... an international mutual assistance agreement. For the meaning of “head of an intelligence service”, see section 263. An application for the issue of a warrant under this Chapter may only be made on behalf of an intercepting authority by a person holding office under the Crown. The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of an intercepting authority mentioned in section 18(1)(a) to (g), issue a targeted interception warrant if— the Secretary of State considers that the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within section 20, the Secretary of State considers that the conduct authorised by the warrant is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, the Secretary of State considers that satisfactory arrangements made for the purposes of sections 53 and 54 (safeguards relating to disclosure etc.) are in force in relation to the warrant, and except where the Secretary of State considers that there is an urgent need to issue the warrant, the decision to issue the warrant has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. This is subject to subsection (4). The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a targeted examination warrant if— the Secretary of State considers that the warrant is or may be necessary to authorise the selection of relevant content for examination in breach of the prohibition in section 152(4) (prohibition on seeking to identify communications of individuals in the British Islands), and The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of an intercepting authority, issue a mutual assistance warrant if— The Secretary of State may not issue a warrant under this section if— the application is a relevant Scottish application (see section 22), and in the case of an application for a targeted interception warrant or a targeted examination warrant, the Secretary of State considers that the warrant is necessary only for the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime. For the power of the Scottish Ministers to issue warrants under this Chapter, see section 21. A targeted interception warrant or targeted examination warrant is necessary on grounds falling within this section if it is necessary— in the interests of national security, for the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime, or in the interests of the economic well-being of the United Kingdom so far as those interests are also relevant to the interests of national security (but see subsection (4)). A mutual assistance warrant is necessary on grounds falling within this section if— it is necessary for the purpose of giving effect to the provisions of ... an international mutual assistance agreement, and the circumstances appear to the Secretary of State to be equivalent to those in which the Secretary of State would issue a warrant by virtue of subsection (2)(b). A warrant may be considered necessary as mentioned in subsection (2)(c) only if the information which it is considered necessary to obtain is information relating to the acts or intentions of persons outside the British Islands. A warrant may not be considered necessary on grounds falling within this section if it is considered necessary only for the purpose of gathering evidence for use in any legal proceedings. The fact that the information which would be obtained under a warrant relates to the activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within this section. The Scottish Ministers may, on an application made by or on behalf of an intercepting authority mentioned in section 18(1)(a) to (g), issue a targeted interception warrant if— the application is a relevant Scottish application (see section 22), the Scottish Ministers consider that the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within subsection (4), the Scottish Ministers consider that the conduct authorised by the warrant is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, the Scottish Ministers consider that satisfactory arrangements made for the purposes of sections 53 and 54 (safeguards relating to disclosure etc.) are in force in relation to the warrant, and except where the Scottish Ministers consider that there is an urgent need to issue the warrant, the decision to issue the warrant has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. The Scottish Ministers may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a targeted examination warrant if— the application is a relevant Scottish application, the Scottish Ministers consider that the warrant is or may be necessary to authorise the selection of relevant content for examination in breach of the prohibition in section 152(4) (prohibition on seeking to identify communications of individuals in the British Islands), and The Scottish Ministers may, on an application made by or on behalf of an intercepting authority, issue a mutual assistance warrant if— A warrant is necessary on grounds falling within this subsection if— in the case of a targeted interception warrant or targeted examination warrant, it is necessary for the purposes of preventing or detecting serious crime, and in the case of a mutual assistance warrant— the circumstances appear to the Scottish Ministers to be equivalent to those in which the Scottish Ministers would issue a warrant by virtue of paragraph (a). A warrant may not be considered necessary on grounds falling within subsection (4) if it is considered necessary only for the purpose of gathering evidence for use in any legal proceedings. The fact that the information which would be obtained under a warrant relates to the activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within subsection (4). An application for the issue of a warrant under this Chapter is a “relevant Scottish application” for the purposes of this Chapter if any of conditions A to C is met. In this section “the applicant” means the person by whom, or on whose behalf, the application is made. Condition A is that— the application is for the issue of a targeted interception warrant or a targeted examination warrant, and the warrant, if issued, would relate to— a person who is in Scotland, or is reasonably believed by the applicant to be in Scotland, at the time of the issue of the warrant, or premises which are in Scotland, or are reasonably believed by the applicant to be in Scotland, at that time. Condition B is that— the application is for the issue of a mutual assistance warrant which, if issued, would authorise or require— the making of a request falling within section 15(4)(a), or the making of such a request and disclosure falling within section 15(4)(c), and the application— is made by, or on behalf of, the chief constable of the Police Service of Scotland, or is made by, or on behalf of, the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs or the Director General of the National Crime Agency for the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime in Scotland. Condition C is that— the provision of assistance falling within section 15(4)(b), or the provision of such assistance and disclosure falling within section 15(4)(c), and In deciding whether to approve a person's decision to issue a warrant under this Chapter, a Judicial Commissioner must review the person's conclusions as to the following matters— whether the warrant is necessary on relevant grounds (see subsection (3)), and whether the conduct that would be authorised by the warrant is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct. In doing so, the Judicial Commissioner must— apply the same principles as would be applied by a court on an application for judicial review, and consider the matters referred to in subsection (1) with a sufficient degree of care as to ensure that the Judicial Commissioner complies with the duties imposed by section 2 (general duties in relation to privacy). In subsection (1)(a) “relevant grounds” means— in the case of a decision of the Secretary of State to issue a warrant, grounds falling within section 20; in the case of a decision of the Scottish Ministers to issue a warrant, grounds falling within section 21(4). Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a person's decision to issue a warrant under this Chapter, the Judicial Commissioner must give the person written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a person's decision to issue a warrant under this Chapter, the person may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to issue the warrant. This section applies where— a warrant under this Chapter is issued without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and the person who decided to issue the warrant considered that there was an urgent need to issue it. The person who decided to issue the warrant must inform a Judicial Commissioner that it has been issued. The Judicial Commissioner must, before the end of the relevant period— decide whether to approve the decision to issue the warrant, and notify the person of the Judicial Commissioner's decision. “The relevant period” means the period ending with the third working day after the day on which the warrant was issued. If a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to issue a warrant, the warrant— ceases to have effect (unless already cancelled), and may not be renewed, and section 23(5) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. Section 25 contains further provision about what happens if a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to issue a warrant. This section applies where under section 24(3) a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to issue a warrant. The person to whom the warrant was addressed must, so far as is reasonably practicable, secure that anything in the process of being done under the warrant stops as soon as possible. The Judicial Commissioner may— direct that any of the material obtained under the warrant is destroyed; impose conditions as to the use or retention of any of that material; in the case of a targeted examination warrant, impose conditions as to the use of any relevant content selected for examination under the warrant. The Judicial Commissioner— may require an affected party to make representations about how the Judicial Commissioner should exercise any function under subsection (3), and must have regard to any such representations made by an affected party (whether or not as a result of a requirement imposed under paragraph (a)). Each of the following is an “affected party” for the purposes of subsection (4)— the person who decided to issue the warrant; the person to whom the warrant was addressed. The person who decided to issue the warrant may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to review a decision made by any other Judicial Commissioner under subsection (3). On a review under subsection (6), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner may— confirm the Judicial Commissioner's decision, or make a fresh determination. Nothing in this section or section 24 affects the lawfulness of— anything done under the warrant before it ceases to have effect; if anything is in the process of being done under the warrant when it ceases to have effect— anything done before that thing could be stopped, or anything done which it is not reasonably practicable to stop. an application is made to the Secretary of State for the issue of a targeted interception warrant or a targeted examination warrant, and the purpose of the warrant is— in the case of a targeted interception warrant, to authorise or require the interception of communications sent by, or intended for, a person who is a member of a relevant legislature, or in the case of a targeted examination warrant, to authorise the selection for examination of the content of such communications. The Secretary of State may not issue the warrant without the approval of the Prime Minister , or if conditions A and B are met, an individual (other than that Secretary of State) designated by the Prime Minister under this section. Condition A is that the Prime Minister is unable to decide whether to give approval under subsection (2), due to incapacity or inability to access secure communications. Condition B is that the Secretary of State or a senior official considers that there is an urgent need for the decision (as to whether to give such approval) to be made. The Prime Minister may designate up to five individuals under this section. The Prime Minister may designate an individual under this section only if the individual— holds the office of Secretary of State, and has the necessary operational awareness to decide whether to give approvals under subsection (2). A designation under this section ends— when the individual ceases to hold the office of Secretary of State, or if earlier, when revoked by the Prime Minister. In this section “senior official” means a member of the Senior Civil Service or a member of the Senior Management Structure of His Majesty’s Diplomatic Service. In this section “member of a relevant legislature” means— a member of either House of Parliament; a member of the Scottish Parliament; a member of the National Assembly for Wales; a member of the Northern Ireland Assembly; Subsections (2) to (5) apply if— an application is made by or on behalf of an intercepting authority for a warrant under this Chapter, and the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is— in the case of a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant, to authorise or require the interception of items subject to legal privilege, or in the case of a targeted examination warrant, to authorise the selection of such items for examination. The application must contain a statement that the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is to authorise or require the interception, or (in the case of a targeted examination warrant) the selection for examination, of items subject to legal privilege. In deciding whether to issue the warrant, the person to whom the application is made must have regard to the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege. The person to whom the application is made may issue the warrant only if the person considers— that there are exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise or require the interception, or (in the case of a targeted examination warrant) the selection for examination, of items subject to legal privilege, and that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 53 or (as the case may be) section 150 (safeguards relating to retention and disclosure of material) include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of such items. But the warrant may not be issued if it is considered necessary only as mentioned in section 20(2)(c).

For the purposes of subsection (4)(a), there cannot be exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise or require the interception, or the selection for examination, of items subject to legal privilege unless— the public interest in obtaining the information that would be obtained by the warrant outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege, there are no other means by which the information may reasonably be obtained, and in the case of a warrant considered necessary as mentioned in section 20(2)(b) or (3) or (as the case may be) 21(4), obtaining the information is necessary for the purpose of preventing death or significant injury. Subsections (8) and (9) apply if— an application is made by or on behalf of an intercepting authority for a warrant under this Chapter, the intercepting authority considers that the relevant communications are likely to include items subject to legal privilege, and subsections (2) to (5) do not apply. The application must contain— a statement that the intercepting authority considers that the relevant communications are likely to include items subject to legal privilege, and an assessment of how likely it is that the relevant communications will include such items. The person to whom the application is made may issue the warrant only if the person considers that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 53 or (as the case may be) section 150 include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of items subject to legal privilege. In this section “relevant communications” means— in relation to a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant, any communications the interception of which is authorised or required by the warrant; in relation to a targeted examination warrant, any communications the content of which the warrant authorises to be selected for examination. Subsections (12) and (13) apply if— in the case of a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant, to authorise or require the interception of communications that, if they were not made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose, would be items subject to legal privilege, or in the case of a targeted examination warrant, to authorise the selection of such communications for examination, and the intercepting authority considers that the communications (“the targeted communications”) are likely to be communications made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. The application must— contain a statement that the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is to authorise or require the interception, or (in the case of a targeted examination warrant) the selection for examination, of communications that, if they were not made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose, would be items subject to legal privilege, and set out the reasons for believing that the targeted communications are likely to be communications made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. The person to whom the application is made may issue the warrant only if the person considers that the targeted communications are likely to be communications made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. This section applies if— in the case of a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant, to authorise or require the interception of communications which the intercepting authority believes will be communications containing confidential journalistic material, or in the case of a targeted examination warrant, to authorise the selection for examination of journalistic material which the intercepting authority believes is confidential journalistic material. The application must contain a statement that the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is— The person to whom the application is made may issue the warrant only if the person considers that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 53 or (as the case may be) section 150 (safeguards relating to retention and disclosure of material) include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of communications containing confidential journalistic material. For the meaning of “journalistic material” and “confidential journalistic material”, see section 264. the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is to identify or confirm a source of journalistic information. (For the meaning of “source of journalistic information”, see section 263(1).) The application must contain a statement that the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is to identify or confirm a source of journalistic information. The person to whom the application is made may issue the warrant only if the person considers that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 53 or (as the case may be) section 150 (safeguards relating to retention and disclosure of material) include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of communications that identify sources of journalistic information. The decision to issue a warrant under this Chapter must be taken personally by— the Secretary of State, or in the case of a warrant to be issued by the Scottish Ministers, a member of the Scottish Government. Before a warrant under this Chapter is issued, it must be signed by the person who has taken the decision to issue it. Subsections (1) and (2) are subject to— subsection (4), and section 40 (special rules for certain mutual assistance warrants). If it is not reasonably practicable for a warrant to be signed by the person who has taken the decision to issue it, the warrant may be signed by a senior official designated by the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the Scottish Ministers for that purpose. In such a case, the warrant must contain a statement that— it is not reasonably practicable for the warrant to be signed by the person who took the decision to issue it, and the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) a member of the Scottish Government has personally and expressly authorised the issue of the warrant. In this section “senior official” means— in the case of a warrant to be issued by the Secretary of State, a member of the Senior Civil Service or a member of the Senior Management Structure of Her Majesty's Diplomatic Service; in the case of a warrant to be issued by the Scottish Ministers, a member of the staff of the Scottish Administration who is a member of the Senior Civil Service. A warrant under this Chapter must contain a provision stating whether it is a targeted interception warrant, a targeted examination warrant or a mutual assistance warrant. A warrant issued under this Chapter must be addressed to the person by whom, or on whose behalf, the application for the warrant was made. A warrant that relates to a particular person or organisation, or to a single set of premises, must name or describe that person or organisation or those premises. A warrant that relates to a group of persons who share a common purpose or who carry on (or may carry on) a particular activity must— describe that purpose or activity, and name or describe as many of those persons as it is reasonably practicable to name or describe. A warrant that relates to more than one person or organisation, or more than one set of premises, where the conduct authorised or required by the warrant is for the purposes of a single investigation or operation, must— describe the investigation or operation, and name or describe as many of those persons or organisations, or as many of those sets of premises, as it is reasonably practicable to name or describe. A warrant that relates to any testing or training activities must— describe those activities, and name or describe as many of the persons within subsection (7) as it is reasonably practicable to name or describe. “Testing or training activities” has the meaning given by section 17(3). A person is within this subsection if— in the case of a targeted interception warrant— communications from, or intended for, the person will or may be intercepted by an interception authorised or required by the warrant, or secondary data will or may be obtained under the warrant from communications from, or intended for, the person; in the case of a targeted examination warrant, the content of communications from, or intended for, the person may be selected for examination under the warrant. Where— a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant authorises or requires the interception of communications described in the warrant, or the obtaining of secondary data from such communications, or a targeted examination warrant authorises the selection of the content of communications for examination, the warrant must specify the addresses, numbers, apparatus, or other factors, or combination of factors, that are to be used for identifying the communications. Any factor, or combination of factors, specified in accordance with subsection (8) must be one that identifies communications which are likely to be or to include— communications from, or intended for, any person or organisation named or described in the warrant, or communications originating on, or intended for transmission to, any premises named or described in the warrant. In this section any reference to communications from, or intended for, a person or organisation includes communications from, or intended for, anything owned, controlled or operated by that person or organisation. A warrant under this Chapter ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period (see subsection (2)), unless— it is renewed before the end of that period (see section 33), or it is cancelled or otherwise ceases to have effect before the end of that period (see sections 24 and 39). In this section “the relevant period”— in the case of an urgent warrant which has not been renewed, means the period ending with the fifth working day after the day on which the warrant was issued; in any other case, means the period of 6 months beginning with— the day on which the warrant was issued, or in the case of a warrant that has been renewed, the day after the day at the end of which the warrant would have ceased to have effect if it had not been renewed. For the purposes of subsection (2)(a) a warrant is an “urgent warrant” if— the warrant was issued without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and If the renewal conditions are met, a warrant issued under this Chapter may be renewed, at any time during the renewal period, by an instrument issued by the appropriate person (see subsection (3)). The renewal conditions are— that the appropriate person considers that the warrant continues to be necessary on any relevant grounds (see subsection (4)), that the appropriate person considers that the conduct that would be authorised by the renewed warrant continues to be proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, that, in the case of a targeted examination warrant, the appropriate person considers that the warrant continues to be necessary to authorise the selection of relevant content for examination in breach of the prohibition in section 152(4), and that the decision to renew the warrant has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. The appropriate person is— in the case of a warrant issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary of State; in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers, a member of the Scottish Government. “Relevant grounds” means— in the case of a warrant issued by the Secretary of State, grounds falling within section 20; in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers, grounds falling within section 21(4). “The renewal period” means— in the case of an urgent warrant which has not been renewed, the relevant period; in any other case, the period of 30 days ending with the day at the end of which the warrant would otherwise cease to have effect. The decision to renew a warrant must be taken personally by the appropriate person, and the instrument renewing the warrant must be signed by that person. Section 23 (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioners) applies in relation to a decision to renew a warrant as it applies in relation to a decision to issue a warrant (and accordingly any reference in that section to the person who decided to issue the warrant is to be read as a reference to the person who decided to renew it). Sections 26 to 29 (additional safeguards) apply in relation to a decision to renew a warrant as they apply in relation to a decision to issue a warrant. “the relevant period” has the same meaning as in section 32; “urgent warrant” is to be read in accordance with subsection (3) of that section. This section is subject to section 40 (special rules for certain mutual assistance warrants). The provisions of a warrant issued under this Chapter may be modified at any time by an instrument issued by the person making the modification. The only modifications that may be made under this section are— adding, varying or removing the name or description of a person, organisation or set of premises to which the warrant relates, and adding, varying or removing any factor specified in the warrant in accordance with section 31(8). But a warrant may not be modified as mentioned in subsection (2)(a) if it relates only to a particular person or organisation, or to a single set of premises, as mentioned in section 17(1). The decision to modify the provisions of a warrant must be taken personally by the person making the modification, and the instrument making the modification must be signed by that person. This is subject to section 36(8). In this Chapter— a modification adding or varying a name or description as mentioned in paragraph (a) of subsection (2) is referred to as a “major modification”, and any other modification within that subsection is referred to as a “minor modification”. Nothing in this section applies in relation to modifying the provisions of a warrant in a way which does not affect the conduct authorised or required by it. Sections 35 to 38 contain further provision about making modifications under this section. A major modification may be made by— the Secretary of State, in the case of a warrant issued by the Secretary of State, a member of the Scottish Government, in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the Scottish Ministers. A minor modification may be made by— a member of the Scottish Government, in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers, a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the Scottish Ministers, the person to whom the warrant is addressed, or a person who holds a senior position in the same public authority as the person mentioned in paragraph (d). But if a person within subsection (2)(d) or (e) considers that there is an urgent need to make a major modification, that person (as well as a person within subsection (1)) may do so. Section 38 contains provision about the approval of major modifications made in urgent cases. Subsections (1) and (3) are subject to section 36(5) and (6) (special rules where any of sections 26 to 29 applies in relation to the making of a major modification). Subsections (2)(d) and (e) and (3) do not apply in the case of a mutual assistance warrant addressed to a person falling within section 18(1)(h) (competent authorities of overseas countries or territories). For the purposes of subsection (2)(e) a person holds a senior position in a public authority if— in the case of any of the intelligence services— the person is a member of the Senior Civil Service or a member of the Senior Management Structure of Her Majesty's Diplomatic Service, or the person holds a position in the intelligence service of equivalent seniority to such a person; in the case of the National Crime Agency, the person is a National Crime Agency officer of grade 2 or above; in the case of the metropolitan police force, the Police Service of Northern Ireland or the Police Service of Scotland, a person is of or above the rank of superintendent; in the case of Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs, the person is a member of the Senior Civil Service; in the case of the Ministry of Defence— the person is a member of the Senior Civil Service, or the person is of or above the rank of brigadier, commodore or air commodore. in the case of a warrant issued by the Secretary of State, a member of the Senior Civil Service or a member of the Senior Management Structure of Her Majesty's Diplomatic Service; in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers, a member of the staff of the Scottish Administration who is a member of the Senior Civil Service. A person may make a modification within subsection (2) only if the person considers— that the modification is necessary on any relevant grounds (see subsection (3)), and that the conduct authorised by the modification is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct. The modifications within this subsection are— a major modification adding the name or description of a person, organisation or set of premises to which the warrant relates, and a minor modification adding any factor specified in the warrant in accordance with section 31(8). in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers, grounds falling within section 21(4); and for the purposes of subsection (1) any reference to the Secretary of State in section 20(3)(b) or the Scottish Ministers in section 21(4)(b) is to be read as a reference to the person making the modification. Sections 26 to 29 (additional safeguards) apply in relation to the making of a major modification within subsection (2)(a) above as they apply in relation to the issuing of a warrant. Where section 26 applies in relation to the making of a major modification— the modification must be made by the Secretary of State, and the modification has effect only if the decision to make the modification has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. Where section 27, 28 or 29 applies in relation to the making of a major modification— the modification must be made by— the Secretary of State or (in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers) a member of the Scottish Government, or if a senior official acting on behalf of a person within sub-paragraph (i) considers that there is an urgent need to make the modification, that senior official, and except where the person making the modification considers that there is an urgent need to make it, the modification has effect only if the decision to make the modification has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. In a case where any of sections 26 to 29 applies in relation to the making of a major modification, section 23 (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioners) applies in relation to the decision to make the modification as it applies in relation to a decision to issue a warrant, but as if— the references in subsection (1)(a) and (b) of that section to the warrant were references to the modification, any reference to the person who decided to issue the warrant were a reference to the person who decided to make the modification, and subsection (3) of this section applied for the purposes of subsection (1) of that section as it applies for the purposes of subsection (1) of this section. If, in a case where any of sections 26 to 29 applies in relation to the making of a major modification, it is not reasonably practicable for the instrument making the modification to be signed by the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) a member of the Scottish Government in accordance with section 34(4), the instrument may be signed by a senior official designated by the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the Scottish Ministers for that purpose. In such a case, the instrument making the modification must contain a statement that— it is not reasonably practicable for the instrument to be signed by the person who took the decision to make the modification, and the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) a member of the Scottish Government has personally and expressly authorised the making of the modification. If at any time a person mentioned in section 35(2) considers that any factor specified in a warrant in accordance with section 31(8) is no longer relevant for identifying communications which, in the case of that warrant, are likely to be, or to include, communications falling within section 31(9)(a) or (b), the person must modify the warrant by removing that factor. In this section “senior official” has the same meaning as in section 35. As soon as is reasonably practicable after a person makes a major modification of a warrant under this Chapter, a Judicial Commissioner must be notified of the modification and the reasons for making it. But subsection (1) does not apply where— the modification is made by virtue of section 35(3), or any of sections 26 to 29 applies in relation to the making of the modification. Where a major modification is made by a senior official in accordance with section 35(1) or section 36(6)(a)(ii), the Secretary of State or (in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers) a member of the Scottish Government must be notified personally of the modification and the reasons for making it. This section applies where a person makes a major modification of a warrant under this Chapter by virtue of section 35(3). This section also applies where— section 27, 28 or 29 applies in relation to the making of a major modification of a warrant under this Chapter, the person making the modification does so without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and the person considered that there was an urgent need to make the modification. The person who made the modification must inform the appropriate person that it has been made. “the appropriate person” is— in a case falling within subsection (1), a designated senior official, and in a case falling within subsection (2), a Judicial Commissioner, “designated senior official” means a senior official who has been designated by the Secretary of State or (in the case of warrants issued by the Scottish Ministers) the Scottish Ministers for the purposes of this section, and “senior official” has the same meaning as in section 35. The appropriate person must, before the end of the relevant period— decide whether to approve the decision to make the modification, and notify the person of the appropriate person's decision. “The relevant period” means the period ending with the third working day after the day on which the modification was made. As soon as is reasonably practicable after a designated senior official makes a decision under subsection (5)— a Judicial Commissioner must be notified of— the decision, and if the senior official has decided to approve the decision to make the modification, the modification in question, and the Secretary of State or (in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers) a member of the Scottish Government must be notified personally of the matters mentioned in paragraph (a)(i) and (ii). If the appropriate person refuses to approve the decision to make the modification— the warrant (unless it no longer has effect) has effect as if the modification had not been made, and the person to whom the warrant is addressed must, so far as is reasonably practicable, secure that anything in the process of being done under the warrant by virtue of that modification stops as soon as possible, and, in a case falling within subsection (2) above, section 23(5) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. Nothing in this section affects the lawfulness of— anything done under the warrant by virtue of the modification before the modification ceases to have effect; if anything is in the process of being done under the warrant by virtue of the modification when the modification ceases to have effect— Any of the appropriate persons may cancel a warrant issued under this Chapter at any time. If any of the appropriate persons considers that— a warrant issued under this Chapter is no longer necessary on any relevant grounds, or the conduct authorised by the warrant is no longer proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, the person must cancel the warrant. In subsection (2)(a) “relevant grounds” means— For the purpose of this section “the appropriate persons” are— in the case of a warrant issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary of State or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State; in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers, a member of the Scottish Government or a senior official acting on behalf of the Scottish Ministers. Where a warrant is cancelled under this section, the person to whom the warrant was addressed must, so far as is reasonably practicable, secure that anything in the process of being done under the warrant stops as soon as possible. A warrant that has been cancelled under this section may not be renewed. See also section 40 (which imposes a duty to cancel mutual assistance warrants in certain circumstances). For the purposes of this section a warrant is a “relevant mutual assistance warrant” if— the warrant is for the purposes of a request for assistance made under ... an international mutual assistance agreement by the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, and either— it appears that the interception subject is outside the United Kingdom, or the interception authorised or required by the warrant is to take place in relation only to premises outside the United Kingdom. The decision to issue a relevant mutual assistance warrant may be taken by a senior official designated by the Secretary of State for that purpose. In such a case, the warrant must contain— a statement that the warrant is issued for the purposes of a request for assistance made under ... an international mutual assistance agreement ... by the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, and whichever of the following statements is applicable— a statement that the interception subject appears to be outside the United Kingdom; a statement that the interception authorised or required by the warrant is to take place in relation only to premises outside the United Kingdom. A relevant mutual assistance warrant may be renewed by a senior official designated by the Secretary of State for that purpose; and references in section 33 to the appropriate person include, in the case of such a warrant, references to that senior official. Where a senior official renews a relevant mutual assistance warrant in accordance with subsection (4), the instrument renewing the warrant must contain— a statement that the renewal is for the purposes of a request for assistance made under ... an international mutual assistance agreement ... by the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, and Subsection (7) applies in a case where— a relevant mutual assistance warrant— was issued containing the statement set out in subsection (3)(b)(i), or has been renewed by an instrument containing the statement set out in subsection (5)(b)(i), and the last renewal (if any) of the warrant was a renewal by a senior official in accordance with subsection (4). If the Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, believes that the person, group or organisation named or described in the warrant as the interception subject is in the United Kingdom, that person must cancel the warrant under section 39. “the interception subject”, in relation to a warrant, means the person, group of persons or organisation to which the warrant relates; “senior official” means a member of the Senior Civil Service or a member of the Senior Management Structure of Her Majesty's Diplomatic Service. This section applies to targeted interception warrants and mutual assistance warrants. In giving effect to a warrant to which this section applies, the person to whom it is addressed (“the intercepting authority”) may (in addition to acting alone) act through, or together with, such other persons as the intercepting authority may require (whether under subsection (3) or otherwise) to provide the authority with assistance in giving effect to the warrant. For the purpose of requiring any person to provide assistance in relation to a warrant to which this section applies, the intercepting authority may— serve a copy of the warrant on any person who the intercepting authority considers may be able to provide such assistance, or make arrangements for the service of a copy of the warrant on any such person. A copy of a warrant may be served under subsection (3) on a person outside the United Kingdom for the purpose of requiring the person to provide such assistance in the form of conduct outside the United Kingdom. For the purposes of this Act, the provision of assistance in giving effect to a warrant to which this section applies includes any disclosure to the intercepting authority, or to persons acting on behalf of the intercepting authority, of anything obtained under the warrant. References in this section and sections 42 and 43 to the service of a copy of a warrant include— the service of a copy of one or more schedules contained in the warrant with the omission of the remainder of the warrant, and the service of a copy of the warrant with the omission of any schedule contained in the warrant. This section applies to the service of warrants under section 41(3). A copy of the warrant must be served in such a way as to bring the contents of the warrant to the attention of the person who the intercepting authority considers may be able to provide assistance in relation to it. A copy of a warrant may be served on a person outside the United Kingdom in any of the following ways (as well as by electronic or other means of service)— by serving it at the person's principal office within the United Kingdom or, if the person has no such office in the United Kingdom, at any place in the United Kingdom where the person carries on business or conducts activities; if the person has specified an address in the United Kingdom as one at which the person, or someone on the person's behalf, will accept service of documents of the same description as a copy of a warrant, by serving it at that address; by making it available for inspection (whether to the person or to someone acting on the person's behalf) at a place in the United Kingdom (but this is subject to subsection (4)). A copy of a warrant may be served on a person outside the United Kingdom in the way mentioned in subsection (3)(c) only if— it is not reasonably practicable for a copy to be served by any other means (whether as mentioned in subsection (3)(a) or (b) or otherwise), and the intercepting authority takes such steps as the authority considers appropriate for the purpose of bringing the contents of the warrant, and the availability of a copy for inspection, to the attention of the person. The steps mentioned in subsection (4)(b) must be taken as soon as reasonably practicable after the copy of the warrant is made available for inspection. In this section “the intercepting authority” has the same meaning as in section 41. A relevant operator that has been served with a copy of a warrant to which section 41 applies by (or on behalf of) the intercepting authority must take all steps for giving effect to the warrant that are notified to the relevant operator by (or on behalf of) the intercepting authority. “relevant operator” means a postal operator or a telecommunications operator; “the intercepting authority” has the same meaning as in section 41. Subsection (1) applies whether or not the relevant operator is in the United Kingdom. The relevant operator is not required to take any steps which it is not reasonably practicable for the relevant operator to take. In determining for the purposes of subsection (4) whether it is reasonably practicable for a relevant operator outside the United Kingdom to take any steps in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom for giving effect to a warrant, the matters to be taken into account include the following— any requirements or restrictions under the law of that country or territory that are relevant to the taking of those steps, and the extent to which it is reasonably practicable to give effect to the warrant in a way that does not breach any of those requirements or restrictions. Where obligations have been imposed on a relevant operator (“P”) under section 253 (technical capability notices), for the purposes of subsection (4) the steps which it is reasonably practicable for P to take include every step which it would have been reasonably practicable for P to take if P had complied with all of those obligations. A person who knowingly fails to comply with subsection (1) is guilty of an offence and liable— The duty imposed by subsection (1) is enforceable (whether or not the person is in the United Kingdom) by civil proceedings by the Secretary of State for an injunction, or for specific performance of a statutory duty under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988, or for any other appropriate relief. The interception of a communication is authorised by this section if the sender and the intended recipient of the communication have each consented to its interception. The interception of a communication is authorised by this section if— the communication is one sent by, or intended for, a person who has consented to the interception, and surveillance by means of that interception has been authorised under— Part 2 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, or the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000 (2000 asp 11). The interception of a communication is authorised by this section if the interception is carried out— by, or on behalf of, a person who provides a postal service or a telecommunications service, and for any of the purposes in subsection (2). The purposes referred to in subsection (1) are— purposes relating to the provision or operation of the service; purposes relating to the enforcement, in relation to the service, of any enactment relating to— the use of postal or telecommunications services, or the content of communications transmitted by means of such services; purposes relating to the provision of services or facilities aimed at preventing or restricting the viewing or publication of the content of communications transmitted by means of postal or telecommunications services. A reference in this section to anything carried out for purposes relating to the provision or operation of a telecommunications service includes, among other things, a reference to anything done for the purposes of identifying, combating or preventing anything which could affect— any telecommunication system by means of which the service is provided, or any apparatus attached to such a system. Conduct is authorised by this section if it is authorised by regulations made under subsection (2). The Secretary of State may by regulations authorise conduct of a description specified in the regulations if that conduct appears to the Secretary of State to constitute a legitimate practice reasonably required for the purpose, in connection with the carrying on of any relevant activities (see subsection (4)), of monitoring or keeping a record of— communications by means of which transactions are entered into in the course of the relevant activities, or other communications relating to the relevant activities or taking place in the course of the carrying on of those activities. But nothing in any regulations under subsection (2) may authorise the interception of any communication except in the course of its transmission using apparatus or services provided by or to the person carrying on the relevant activities for use (whether wholly or partly) in connection with those activities. In this section “relevant activities” means— any business, any activities of a government department, the Welsh Government, a Northern Ireland department or any part of the Scottish Administration, any activities of a public authority, and any activities of any person or office holder on whom functions are conferred by or under any enactment. The interception of a communication in the course of its transmission by means of a public postal service is authorised by this section if it is carried out by an officer of Revenue and Customs under section 159 of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979, as applied by virtue of— section 105 of the Postal Services Act 2000 (power to open postal items etc.), or that section and another enactment. The interception of a communication in the course of its transmission by means of a public postal service is authorised by this section if it is carried out under paragraph 9 of Schedule 7 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (port and border controls) or under paragraph 9 of Schedule 3 to the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (border security) . Conduct falling within subsection (2) is authorised by this section if it is carried out by OFCOM for purposes connected with a relevant matter (see subsection (3)). The conduct referred to in subsection (1) is— the interception of a communication in the course of its transmission by means of a telecommunication system; the obtaining, by or in connection with the interception, of information about the sender or recipient, or intended recipient, of the communication (whether or not a person); the disclosure of anything obtained by conduct falling within paragraph (a) or (b). Each of the following is a relevant matter for the purposes of subsection (1)— the grant of wireless telegraphy licences under the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 (“the 2006 Act”); the prevention or detection of anything which constitutes interference with wireless telegraphy; the enforcement of— any provision of Part 2 (other than Chapter 2 and sections 27 to 31) or Part 3 of the 2006 Act, or any enactment not falling within sub-paragraph (i) that relates to interference with wireless telegraphy. “interference”, in relation to wireless telegraphy, has the same meaning as in the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 (see section 115(3) of that Act); “OFCOM” means the Office of Communications established by section 1 of the Office of Communications Act 2002; “wireless telegraphy” has the same meaning as in the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 (see section 116 of that Act). Conduct taking place in a prison is authorised by this section if it is conduct in exercise of any power conferred by or under prison rules. In this section “prison rules” means any rules made under— section 47 of the Prison Act 1952, section 39 of the Prisons (Scotland) Act 1989, or section 13 of the Prison Act (Northern Ireland) 1953. In this section “prison” means— any prison, young offender institution, young offenders centre, secure training centre, secure college or remand centre which— is under the general superintendence of, or is provided by, the Secretary of State under the Prison Act 1952, or is under the general superintendence of, or is provided by, the Department of Justice in Northern Ireland under the Prison Act (Northern Ireland) 1953, or any prison, young offenders institution or remand centre which is under the general superintendence of the Scottish Ministers under the Prisons (Scotland) Act 1989, and includes any contracted out prison, within the meaning of Part 4 of the Criminal Justice Act 1991 or section 106(4) of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994, and any legalised police cells within the meaning of section 14 of the Prisons (Scotland) Act 1989. Conduct is authorised by this section if— it takes place in any hospital premises where high security psychiatric services are provided, and it is conduct in pursuance of, and in accordance with, any relevant direction given to the body providing those services at those premises. “Relevant direction” means— a direction under section 4(3A)(a) of the National Health Service Act 2006, or a direction under section 19 or 23 of the National Health Service (Wales) Act 2006. it takes place in a state hospital, and it is conduct in pursuance of, and in accordance with, any direction given to the State Hospitals Board for Scotland under section 2(5) of the National Health Service (Scotland) Act 1978 (regulations and directions as to the exercise of their functions by health boards). The reference to section 2(5) of that Act is to that provision as applied by Article 5(1) of, and the Schedule to, the State Hospitals Board for Scotland Order 1995 (which applies certain provisions of that Act to the State Hospitals Board). Conduct is authorised by this section if it is conduct in exercise of any power conferred by or under— section 281 of the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 (2003 asp 13) (power to withhold correspondence of certain persons detained in hospital), or section 284 of that Act (powers relating to the use of telephones by certain persons detained in hospital). “high security psychiatric services” has the same meaning as in section 4 of the National Health Service Act 2006; “hospital premises” has the same meaning as in section 4(3) of that Act; “state hospital” has the same meaning as in the National Health Service (Scotland) Act 1978. Conduct taking place in immigration detention facilities is authorised by this section if it is conduct in exercise of any power conferred by or under relevant rules. “immigration detention facilities” means any removal centre, short-term holding facility or pre-departure accommodation; “removal centre”, “short-term holding facility” and “pre-departure accommodation” have the meaning given by section 147 of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999; “relevant rules” means— in the case of a removal centre, rules made under section 153 of that Act; in the case of a short-term holding facility, rules made under, or having effect by virtue of, section 157 of that Act; in the case of pre-departure accommodation, rules made under, or having effect by virtue of, section 157A of that Act. The interception of a communication in the course of its transmission by means of a telecommunication system is authorised by this section if conditions A to D are met. Condition A is that the interception— is carried out by or on behalf of a telecommunications operator, and relates to the use of a telecommunications service provided by the telecommunications operator. Condition B is that the interception is carried out in response to a request made in accordance with a relevant international agreement by the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom. In this subsection “relevant international agreement” means an international agreement to which the United Kingdom is a party and which is designated as a relevant international agreement by regulations made by the Secretary of State (see further subsections (6) and (7)). Condition C is that the interception is carried out for the purpose of obtaining information about the communications of an individual— who is outside the United Kingdom, or who each of the following persons believes is outside the United Kingdom— the person making the request; the person carrying out the interception. Condition D is that any further conditions specified in regulations made by the Secretary of State for the purposes of this section are met. Subsection (7) applies where an international agreement provides for requests for the interception of a communication to be made by the competent authorities of a country or territory, or of more than one country or territory, in which a person found guilty of a criminal offence may be sentenced to death for the offence under the general criminal law of the country or territory concerned. Such an offence is referred to in subsection (7) as a “death penalty offence”. Where this subsection applies, the Secretary of State may not designate the agreement as a relevant international agreement unless the Secretary of State has sought, in respect of each country or territory referred to in subsection (6), a written assurance, or written assurances, relating to the non-use of information obtained by virtue of the agreement in connection with proceedings for a death penalty offence in the country or territory. The issuing authority must ensure, in relation to every targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant issued by that authority, that arrangements are in force for securing that the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) are met in relation to the material obtained under the warrant. This is subject to subsection (9). The requirements of this subsection are met in relation to the material obtained under a warrant if each of the following is limited to the minimum that is necessary for the authorised purposes (see subsection (3))— the number of persons to whom any of the material is disclosed or otherwise made available; the extent to which any of the material is disclosed or otherwise made available; the extent to which any of the material is copied; the number of copies that are made. For the purposes of this section something is necessary for the authorised purposes if, and only if— it is, or is likely to become, necessary on any of the grounds falling within section 20 on which a warrant under Chapter 1 of this Part may be necessary, it is necessary for facilitating the carrying out of any functions under this Act of the Secretary of State, the Scottish Ministers or the person to whom the warrant is or was addressed, it is necessary for facilitating the carrying out of any functions of the Judicial Commissioners or the Investigatory Powers Tribunal under or in relation to this Act, it is necessary to ensure that a person (“P”) who is conducting a criminal prosecution has the information P needs to determine what is required of P by P's duty to secure the fairness of the prosecution, or it is necessary for the performance of any duty imposed on any person by the Public Records Act 1958 or the Public Records Act (Northern Ireland) 1923. The arrangements for the time being in force under this section for securing that the requirements of subsection (2) are met in relation to the material obtained under the warrant must include arrangements for securing that every copy made of any of that material is stored, for so long as it is retained, in a secure manner. The requirements of this subsection are met in relation to the material obtained under a warrant if every copy made of any of that material (if not destroyed earlier) is destroyed as soon as there are no longer any relevant grounds for retaining it (see subsection (6)). For the purposes of subsection (5), there are no longer any relevant grounds for retaining a copy of any material if, and only if— its retention is not necessary, or not likely to become necessary, on any of the grounds falling within section 20 on which a warrant under Chapter 1 of this Part may be necessary, and its retention is not necessary for any of the purposes mentioned in paragraphs (b) to (e) of subsection (3) above.

a communication which has been intercepted in accordance with a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant is retained, following its examination, for purposes other than the destruction of the communication, and it is a communication that contains confidential journalistic material or identifies a source of journalistic information, the person to whom the warrant is addressed must inform the Investigatory Powers Commissioner as soon as is reasonably practicable. Subsection (9) applies if— any material obtained under the warrant has been handed over to any overseas authorities, or a copy of any such material has been given to any overseas authorities. To the extent that the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) relate to any of the material mentioned in subsection (8)(a), or to the copy mentioned in subsection (8)(b), the arrangements made for the purposes of this section are not required to secure that those requirements are met (see instead section 54). “copy”, in relation to material obtained under a warrant, means any of the following (whether or not in documentary form)— any copy, extract or summary of the material which identifies the material as having been obtained under the warrant, and any record which— refers to any interception or to the obtaining of any material, and is a record of the identities of the persons to or by whom the material was sent, or to whom the material relates, and “copied” is to be read accordingly; “the issuing authority” means— the Secretary of State, in the case of warrants issued by the Secretary of State; the Scottish Ministers, in the case of warrants issued by the Scottish Ministers; “overseas authorities” means authorities of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom. The issuing authority must ensure, in relation to every targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant issued by that authority, that arrangements are in force for securing that— any material obtained under the warrant is handed over to overseas authorities only if the requirements of subsection (2) are met, and copies of any such material are given to overseas authorities only if those requirements are met. The requirements of this subsection are met in the case of a warrant if it appears to the issuing authority— that requirements corresponding to the requirements of section 53(2) and (5) will apply, to such extent (if any) as the issuing authority considers appropriate, in relation to any of the material which is handed over, or any copy of which is given, to the authorities in question, and that restrictions are in force which would prevent, to such extent (if any) as the issuing authority considers appropriate, the doing of anything in, for the purposes of or in connection with any proceedings outside the United Kingdom which would result in a prohibited disclosure. In subsection (2)(b) “prohibited disclosure” means a disclosure which, if made in the United Kingdom, would breach the prohibition in section 56(1). “copy” has the same meaning as in section 53; This section applies where an item subject to legal privilege which has been intercepted in accordance with a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant is retained, following its examination, for purposes other than the destruction of the item. The person to whom the warrant is addressed must inform the Investigatory Powers Commissioner of the retention of the item as soon as is reasonably practicable. Unless the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers that subsection (5) applies to the item, the Commissioner must— direct that the item is destroyed, or impose one or more conditions as to the use or retention of that item. If the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers that subsection (5) applies to the item, the Commissioner may nevertheless impose such conditions under subsection (3)(b) as the Commissioner considers necessary for the purpose of protecting the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege. This subsection applies to an item subject to legal privilege if— the public interest in retaining the item outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege, and retaining the item is necessary in the interests of national security or for the purpose of preventing death or significant injury. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner— may require an affected party to make representations about how the Commissioner should exercise any function under subsection (3), and Each of the following is an “affected party” for the purposes of subsection (6)— the person to whom the warrant is or was addressed. No evidence may be adduced, question asked, assertion or disclosure made or other thing done in, for the purposes of or in connection with any legal proceedings or Inquiries Act proceedings which (in any manner)— discloses, in circumstances from which its origin in interception-related conduct may be inferred— any content of an intercepted communication, or any secondary data obtained from a communication, or tends to suggest that any interception-related conduct has or may have occurred or may be going to occur. This is subject to Schedule 3 (exceptions). “Interception-related conduct” means— conduct by a person within subsection (3) that is, or in the absence of any lawful authority would be, an offence under section 3(1) (offence of unlawful interception); a breach of the prohibition imposed by section 9 (restriction on requesting interception by overseas authorities); a breach of the prohibition imposed by section 10 (restriction on requesting assistance under mutual assistance agreements etc.); the making of an application by any person for a warrant, or the issue of a warrant, under Chapter 1 of this Part; the imposition of any requirement on any person to provide assistance in giving effect to a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant. The persons referred to in subsection (2)(a) are— any person who is an intercepting authority (see section 18); any person holding office under the Crown; any person deemed to be the proper officer of Revenue and Customs by virtue of section 8(2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979; any person employed by, or for the purposes of, a police force or the tri-service serious crime unit; any postal operator or telecommunications operator; any person employed or engaged for the purposes of the business of a postal operator or telecommunications operator. Any reference in subsection (1) to interception-related conduct also includes any conduct taking place before the coming into force of this section and consisting of— conduct by a person within subsection (3) that— was an offence under section 1(1) or (2) of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (“RIPA”), or would have been such an offence in the absence of any lawful authority (within the meaning of section 1(5) of RIPA); was an offence under section 1 of the Interception of Communications Act 1985, or would have been such an offence in the absence of subsections (2) and (3) of that section; a breach by the Secretary of State of the duty under section 1(4) of RIPA (restriction on requesting assistance under mutual assistance agreements); the making of an application by any person for a warrant, or the issue of a warrant, under— Chapter 1 of Part 1 of RIPA, or the Interception of Communications Act 1985; the imposition of any requirement on any person to provide assistance in giving effect to a warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 1 of RIPA. “Inquiries Act proceedings” means proceedings of an inquiry under the Inquiries Act 2005; “intercepted communication” means any communication intercepted in the course of its transmission by means of a postal service or telecommunication system. A person to whom this section applies must not make an unauthorised disclosure to another person. A person makes an unauthorised disclosure for the purposes of this section if— the person discloses any of the matters within subsection (4) in relation to— a warrant under Chapter 1 of this Part, or a warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, and the disclosure is not an excepted disclosure (see section 58). This section applies to the following persons— any person employed or engaged for the purposes of the business of a postal operator or telecommunications operator; any person to whom any of the matters within subsection (4) have been disclosed in relation to a warrant mentioned in subsection (2)(a). The matters referred to in subsection (2)(a) are— the existence or contents of the warrant; the details of the issue of the warrant or of any renewal or modification of the warrant; the existence or contents of any requirement to provide assistance in giving effect to the warrant; the steps taken in pursuance of the warrant or of any such requirement; any of the material obtained under the warrant. For the purposes of section 57 a disclosure made in relation to a warrant is an “excepted disclosure” if it falls within any of the Heads set out in— subsection (2) (disclosures authorised by warrant etc.); subsection (4) (oversight bodies); subsection (5) (legal advisers); subsection (8) (disclosures of a general nature). Head 1 is— a disclosure authorised by the warrant; a disclosure authorised by the person to whom the warrant is or was addressed or under any arrangements made by that person for the purposes of this section; a disclosure authorised by the terms of any requirement to provide assistance in giving effect to the warrant (including any requirement for disclosure imposed by virtue of section 41(5) or, in the case of a warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (“RIPA”), section 11(9) of RIPA). But subsection (2)(b) does not apply in the case of a mutual assistance warrant that is or was addressed to a person falling within section 18(1)(h) (competent authorities of overseas countries or territories). Head 2 is— in the case of a warrant under Chapter 1 of this Part, a disclosure made to, or authorised by, a Judicial Commissioner; in the case of a warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 1 of RIPA, a disclosure made to, or authorised by, the Interception of Communications Commissioner or a Judicial Commissioner; a disclosure made to the Director General of the Independent Office for Police Conduct for the purposes of facilitating the carrying out of any of the Director General’s functions; a disclosure made to the Service Police Complaints Commissioner for the purposes of facilitating the carrying out of any of the Commissioner’s functions; a disclosure made to the Intelligence and Security Committee of Parliament for the purposes of facilitating the carrying out of any of its functions. a disclosure made to the Independent Commission for Reconciliation and Information Recovery for the purpose of facilitating the carrying out of any of the functions of the Independent Commission for Reconciliation and Information Recovery. Head 3 is— a disclosure made by a legal adviser— in contemplation of, or in connection with, any legal proceedings, and for the purposes of those proceedings; a disclosure made— by a professional legal adviser (“L”) to L's client or a representative of L's client, or by L's client, or by a representative of L's client, to L, in connection with the giving, by L to L's client, of advice about the effect of the relevant provisions (see subsection (7)). But a disclosure within Head 3 is not an excepted disclosure if it is made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. In subsection (5)(b) “the relevant provisions” means— in the case of a warrant under Chapter 1 of this Part, the provisions of this Part; in the case of a warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 1 of RIPA, the provisions of that Chapter. Head 4 is— a disclosure that— is made by a postal operator or a telecommunications operator in accordance with a requirement imposed by regulations made by the Secretary of State, and consists of statistical information of a description specified in the regulations; a disclosure of information that does not relate to any particular warrant under Chapter 1 of this Part or under Chapter 1 of Part 1 of RIPA but relates to any such warrants in general. Nothing in this section affects the operation of section 56 (which, among other things, prohibits the making of certain disclosures in, for the purposes of or in connection with legal proceedings). A person who fails to comply with section 57(1) commits an offence. A person who is guilty of an offence under this section is liable— on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or to a fine, or to both. In proceedings against any person for an offence under this section in respect of any disclosure, it is a defence for the person to show that the person could not reasonably have been expected, after first becoming aware of the matter disclosed, to take steps to prevent the disclosure. In this Part— “intercepting authority” is to be read in accordance with section 18; “international mutual assistance agreement” has the meaning given by section 10(3); “mutual assistance warrant” has the meaning given by section 15(4); “police force” means any of the following— any police force maintained under section 2 of the Police Act 1996; the metropolitan police force; the City of London police force; the Police Service of Scotland; the Police Service of Northern Ireland; the Ministry of Defence Police; the Royal Navy Police; the Royal Military Police; the Royal Air Force Police; the British Transport Police Force; “relevant content”, in relation to a targeted examination warrant, has the meaning given by section 15(3); “relevant Scottish application” has the meaning given by section 22; “secondary data” has the meaning given by section 16, and references to obtaining secondary data from a communication are to be read in accordance with that section; “targeted examination warrant” has the meaning given by section 15(3). In this Part references to a member of a police force, in relation to the Royal Navy Police, the Royal Military Police or the Royal Air Force Police, do not include any member of that force who is not for the time being attached to, or serving with, that force or another of those police forces. See also— section 261 (telecommunications definitions), section 262 (postal definitions), section 263 (general definitions), section 264 (general definitions: “journalistic material” etc.), section 265 (index of defined expressions). Subsection (2) applies if the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, on an application made by a relevant public authority, considers— that it is necessary for the relevant public authority to obtain communications data for a purpose falling within subsection (7), that it is necessary for the relevant public authority to obtain the data— for the purposes of a specific investigation or a specific operation, or for the purposes of testing, maintaining or developing equipment, systems or other capabilities relating to the availability or obtaining of communications data, and that the conduct authorised by the authorisation is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may authorise the relevant public authority to engage in any conduct which— is for the purpose of obtaining the data from any person, and relates to— a telecommunication system, or data derived from a telecommunication system. section 62 (restrictions in relation to internet connection records), sections 70, 73 and 75 and Schedule 4 (restrictions relating to certain relevant public authorities), section 76 (requirement to consult a single point of contact), and section 77 (Commissioner approval for authorisations to identify or confirm journalistic sources). Authorised conduct may, in particular, consist of the relevant public authority— obtaining the communications data itself from any person or telecommunication system, asking any person whom the relevant public authority believes is, or may be, in possession of the communications data or capable of obtaining it— to obtain the data (if not already in possession of it), and to disclose the data (whether already in the person’s possession or subsequently obtained by that person) to the relevant public authority, or requiring by notice a telecommunications operator whom the relevant public authority believes is, or may be, in possession of the communications data or capable of obtaining it— to disclose the data (whether already in the operator’s possession or subsequently obtained by the operator) to the relevant public authority. An authorisation— may relate to data whether or not in existence at the time of the authorisation, may authorise the obtaining or disclosure of data by a person other than the relevant public authority, or any other conduct by such a person, which enables or facilitates the obtaining of the communications data concerned, and may, in particular, require a telecommunications operator who controls or provides a telecommunications system to obtain or disclose data relating to the use of a telecommunications service provided by another telecommunications operator in relation to that system. An authorisation may not authorise any conduct consisting in the interception of communications in the course of their transmission by means of a telecommunication system. It is necessary to obtain communications data for a purpose falling within this subsection if it is necessary to obtain the data— for the applicable crime purpose (see subsection (8)), in the interests of the economic well-being of the United Kingdom so far as those interests are also relevant to the interests of national security, in the interests of public safety, for the purpose of preventing death or injury or any damage to a person’s physical or mental health, or of mitigating any injury or damage to a person’s physical or mental health, to assist investigations into alleged miscarriages of justice, or where a person (“P”) has died or is unable to identify themselves because of a physical or mental condition— to assist in identifying P, or to obtain information about P’s next of kin or other persons connected with P or about the reasons for P’s death or condition. In subsection (7)(b), “the applicable crime purpose” means— where the communications data is wholly or partly events data, the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime; in any other case, the purpose of preventing or detecting crime or of preventing disorder. The fact that the communications data which would be obtained in pursuance of an authorisation relates to the activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that it is necessary to obtain the data for a purpose falling within subsection (7). See— sections 70 and 73 for the meaning of “relevant public authority”; section 84 for the way in which this Part applies to postal operators and postal services; section 86(2A) for the meaning of “serious crime”. Subsection (2) applies if a designated senior officer of a relevant public authority considers— that it is necessary to obtain communications data for a purpose falling within subsection (7), that it is necessary to obtain the data— The designated senior officer may authorise any officer of the authority to engage in any conduct which— section 63 (additional restrictions on grant of authorisations), sections 70 , 73 and 75 and Schedule 4 (restrictions relating to certain relevant public authorities), Authorised conduct may, in particular, consist of an authorised officer— obtaining the communications data themselves from any person or telecommunication system, asking any person whom the authorised officer believes is, or may be, in possession of the communications data or capable of obtaining it— to disclose the data (whether already in the person's possession or subsequently obtained by that person) to a person identified by, or in accordance with, the authorisation, or requiring by notice a telecommunications operator whom the authorised officer believes is, or may be, in possession of the communications data or capable of obtaining it— to disclose the data (whether already in the operator's possession or subsequently obtained by the operator) to a person identified by, or in accordance with, the authorisation. may authorise the obtaining or disclosure of data by a person who is not an authorised officer, or any other conduct by such a person, which enables or facilitates the obtaining of the communications data concerned, and may, in particular, require a telecommunications operator who controls or provides a telecommunication system to obtain or disclose data relating to the use of a telecommunications service provided by another telecommunications operator in relation to that system. may not authorise any conduct consisting in the interception of communications in the course of their transmission by means of a telecommunication system, and may not authorise an authorised officer to ask or require, in the circumstances mentioned in subsection (4)(b) or (c), a person to disclose the data to any person other than— an authorised officer, or an officer of the same relevant public authority as an authorised officer. for the applicable crime purpose (see subsection (7A)), or sections 70 and 73 for the meanings of “designated senior officer” and “relevant public authority”; section 84 for the way in which this Part applies to postal operators and postal services. that it is necessary to obtain the data for the purposes of a specific investigation or a specific operation, that there is an urgent need to obtain the data, and The designated senior officer may authorise any officer of the relevant public authority to engage in any conduct which— to disclose the data (whether already in the person’s possession or subsequently obtained by that person) to a person identified by, or in accordance with, the authorisation, or to disclose the data (whether already in the operator’s possession or subsequently obtained by the operator) to a person identified by, or in accordance with, the authorisation. In subsection (7)(a), “the applicable crime purpose” means— sections 70 and 73 for the meanings of “designated senior officer” and “relevant public authority”; The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may not, on the application of a local authority, grant an authorisation under section 60A for the purpose of obtaining data which is, or can only be obtained by processing, an internet connection record. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may not, on the application of a relevant public authority which is not a local authority, grant an authorisation under section 60A for the purpose of obtaining data which is, or can only be obtained by processing, an internet connection record unless condition A, B , C or D1 is met. A designated senior officer of a relevant public authority which is not a local authority may not grant an authorisation under section 61 or 61A for the purpose of obtaining data which is, or can only be obtained by processing, an internet connection record unless condition A, B , C or D2 is met. Condition A is that the person with power to grant the authorisation considers that it is necessary, for a purpose falling within section 60A(7), 61(7) or 61A(7) (as applicable), to obtain the data to identify which person or apparatus is using an internet service where— the service and time of use are already known, but the identity of the person or apparatus using the service is not known. the purpose for which the data is to be obtained falls within section 60A(7), 61(7) or 61A(7) (as applicable) but is not the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime mentioned in section 60A(8)(a), 61(7A)(a) or 61A(8)(a) or the purpose of preventing or detecting crime mentioned in section 60A(8)(b), 61(7A)(b) or 61A(8)(b), and the person with power to grant the authorisation considers that it is necessary to obtain the data to identify— which internet communications service is being used, and when and how it is being used, by a person or apparatus whose identity is already known, where or when a person or apparatus whose identity is already known is obtaining access to, or running, a computer file or computer program which wholly or mainly involves making available, or acquiring, material whose possession is a crime, or which internet service is being used, and when and how it is being used, by a person or apparatus whose identity is already known. the purpose for which the data is to be obtained is the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime mentioned in section 60A(8)(a), 61(7A)(a) or 61A(8)(a), or the purpose for which the data is to be obtained is the purpose of preventing or detecting crime mentioned in section 60A(8)(b), 61(7A)(b) or 61A(8)(b) and the crime to be prevented or detected is serious crime, and Condition D1 is that— the application is made by a relevant public authority which is specified in column 1 of the table (see below), and the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers that it is necessary, for a purpose described in the corresponding entry in column 2 of the table, to identify which persons or apparatuses are using one or more specified internet services in a specified period. Condition D2 is that— the relevant public authority whose designated senior officer has power to grant the authorisation is specified in column 1 of the table (see below), and that officer considers that it is necessary, for a purpose described in the corresponding entry in column 2 or 3 of the table (as applicable), to identify which persons or apparatuses are using one or more specified internet services in a specified period. In subsections (5A)(b) and (5B)(b) “specified” means specified in the application for the authorisation. In this Act “internet connection record” means communications data which— may be used to identify, or assist in identifying, a telecommunications service to which a communication is transmitted by means of a telecommunication system for the purpose of obtaining access to, or running, a computer file or computer program, and comprises data generated or processed by a telecommunications operator in the process of supplying the telecommunications service to the sender of the communication (whether or not a person). A designated senior officer may not grant an authorisation under section 61 for the purposes of a specific investigation or a specific operation if the officer is working on that investigation or operation. But, if the designated senior officer considers that there are exceptional circumstances which mean that subsection (1) should not apply in a particular case, that subsection does not apply in that case. Examples of exceptional circumstances include— an imminent threat to life or another emergency, the investigation or operation concerned is one where there is an exceptional need, in the interests of national security, to keep knowledge of it to a minimum, or there is an opportunity to obtain information where— the opportunity is rare, the time to act is short, and the need to obtain the information is significant and in the interests of national security. An authorisation must specify— whether the authorisation has been granted by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner under section 60A or by a designated senior officer under section 61 or 61A; the matters falling within section 60A(7), 61(7) or 61A(7) (as applicable) by reference to which it is granted, the conduct that is authorised, the data or description of data to be obtained, and the persons or descriptions of persons to whom the data is to be, or may be, disclosed or how to identify such persons. An authorisation granted by a designated senior officer under section 61 or 61A must also specify the office, rank or position held by the officer. An authorisation which authorises a person to impose requirements by notice on a telecommunications operator must also specify— the operator concerned, and the nature of the requirements that are to be imposed, but need not specify the other contents of the notice. The notice itself— must specify— the office, rank or position held by the person giving it, the requirements that are being imposed, and the telecommunications operator on whom the requirements are being imposed, and must be given in writing or (if not in writing) in a manner that produces a record of its having been given. An authorisation must be applied for, and granted, in writing or (if not in writing) in a manner that produces a record of its having been applied for or granted. An authorisation under section 60A or 61 ceases to have effect at the end of the period of one month beginning with the date on which it is granted. An authorisation under section 60A or 61 may be renewed at any time before the end of that period by the grant of a further authorisation. Subsection (1) has effect in relation to a renewed authorisation as if the period of one month mentioned in that subsection did not begin until the end of the period of one month applicable to the authorisation that is current at the time of the renewal. An authorisation under section 61A ceases to have effect at the end of the period of 3 days beginning with the date on which it is granted. Where the Investigatory Powers Commissioner has granted an authorisation under section 60A to a relevant public authority— the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or an officer of the authority may cancel it at any time, and the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or an officer of the authority must cancel it if the Commissioner or (as the case may be) the officer considers that the requirements of this Part would not be satisfied in relation to granting an equivalent new authorisation. A designated senior officer who has granted an authorisation under section 61 or 61A— may cancel it at any time, and must cancel it if the designated senior officer considers that the requirements of this Part would not be satisfied in relation to granting an equivalent new authorisation. The Secretary of State may by regulations provide for the person by whom any function under subsection (4) is to be exercised where the person who would otherwise have exercised it is no longer available to do so. Such regulations may, in particular, provide for the person by whom the function is to be exercised to be a person appointed in accordance with the regulations. A notice given in pursuance of an authorisation (and any requirement imposed by the notice)— is not affected by the authorisation subsequently ceasing to have effect under subsection (1) or (3A), but is cancelled if the authorisation is cancelled under subsection (3B) or (4). It is the duty of a telecommunications operator on whom a requirement is imposed by notice given in pursuance of an authorisation to comply with that requirement. It is the duty of a telecommunications operator who is obtaining or disclosing communications data, in response to a request or requirement for the data in pursuance of an authorisation, to obtain or disclose the data in a way that minimises the amount of data that needs to be processed for the purpose concerned. A person who is under a duty by virtue of subsection (1) or (2) is not required to take any steps in pursuance of that duty which it is not reasonably practicable for that person to take. For the purposes of subsection (3), where obligations have been imposed on a telecommunications operator (“P”) under section 253 (maintenance of technical capability), the steps which it is reasonably practicable for P to take include every step which it would have been reasonably practicable for P to take if P had complied with all of those obligations. The duty imposed by subsection (1) or (2) is enforceable by civil proceedings by the Secretary of State for an injunction, or for specific performance of a statutory duty under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988, or for any other appropriate relief. The Secretary of State may establish, maintain and operate arrangements for the purposes of— assisting a person, who is considering whether to grant an authorisation, to determine whether the requirements of this Part in relation to granting the authorisation are satisfied, or facilitating the lawful, efficient and effective obtaining of communications data from any person by relevant public authorities in pursuance of an authorisation. Arrangements under subsection (1) (“filtering arrangements”) may, in particular, involve the obtaining of communications data in pursuance of an authorisation (“the target data”) by means of— a request to the Secretary of State to obtain the target data on behalf of an authorised officer, and the Secretary of State— obtaining the target data or data from which the target data may be derived, processing the target data or the data from which it may be derived (and retaining data temporarily for that purpose), and disclosing the target data to the person identified for this purpose by, or in accordance with, the authorisation. Filtering arrangements may, in particular, involve the generation or use by the Secretary of State of information— for the purpose mentioned in subsection (1)(a), or for the purposes of— the support, maintenance, oversight, operation or administration of the arrangements, or the functions of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner mentioned in subsection (4) or (5). Filtering arrangements must involve the generation and retention of such information or documents as the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers appropriate for the purposes of the functions of the Commissioner under section 229(1) of keeping under review the exercise by public authorities of functions under this Part. The Secretary of State must consult the Investigatory Powers Commissioner about the principles on the basis of which the Secretary of State intends to establish, maintain or operate any arrangements for the purpose mentioned in subsection (1)(a). This section applies in relation to the use of the filtering arrangements in pursuance of an authorisation. The filtering arrangements may be used— to obtain and disclose communications data in pursuance of an authorisation, only if the authorisation specifically authorises the use of the arrangements to obtain and disclose the data, to process data in pursuance of an authorisation (and to retain the data temporarily for that purpose), only if the authorisation specifically authorises processing data of that description under the arrangements (and their temporary retention for that purpose). An authorisation must record the decision of the person granting the authorisation as to— whether the communications data to be obtained and disclosed in pursuance of the authorisation may be obtained and disclosed by use of the filtering arrangements, whether the processing of data under the filtering arrangements (and its temporary retention for that purpose) is authorised, if the processing of data under the filtering arrangements is authorised, the description of data that may be processed. A person must not grant an authorisation which authorises— use of the filtering arrangements, or processing under the filtering arrangements, unless the condition in subsection (5) is met. The condition is that the person (as well as considering that the other requirements of this Part in relation to granting the authorisation are satisfied) considers that what is authorised in relation to the filtering arrangements is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved. The Secretary of State must secure— that no authorisation data is obtained or processed under the filtering arrangements except for the purposes of an authorisation, that data which— has been obtained or processed under the filtering arrangements, and is to be disclosed in pursuance of an authorisation or for the purpose mentioned in section 67(1)(a), is disclosed only to the person to whom the data is to be disclosed in pursuance of the authorisation or (as the case may be) to the person considering whether to grant the authorisation, that any authorisation data which is obtained under the filtering arrangements in pursuance of an authorisation is immediately destroyed— when the purposes of the authorisation have been met, or if at any time it ceases to be necessary to retain the data for the purposes or purpose concerned. The Secretary of State must secure that data (other than authorisation data) which is retained under the filtering arrangements is disclosed only— for the purpose mentioned in section 67(1)(a), for the purposes of support, maintenance, oversight, operation or administration of the arrangements, to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for the purposes of the functions of the Commissioner mentioned in section 67(4) or (5), or otherwise as authorised by law. The Secretary of State must secure that— only the Secretary of State and designated individuals are permitted to read, obtain or otherwise process data for the purposes of support, maintenance, oversight, operation or administration of the filtering arrangements, and no other persons are permitted to access or use the filtering arrangements except in pursuance of an authorisation or for the purpose mentioned in section 67(1)(a). In subsection (3)(a) “designated” means designated by the Secretary of State; and the Secretary of State may designate an individual only if the Secretary of State thinks that it is necessary for the individual to be able to act as mentioned in subsection (3)(a). The Secretary of State must— put in place and maintain an adequate security system to govern access to, and use of, the filtering arrangements and to protect against any abuse of the power of access, and impose measures to protect against unauthorised or unlawful data retention, processing, access or disclosure. put in place and maintain procedures (including the regular testing of relevant software and hardware) to ensure that the filtering arrangements are functioning properly, and report, as soon as possible after the end of each calendar year, to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner about the functioning of the filtering arrangements during that year. A report under subsection (6)(b) must, in particular, contain information about the destruction of authorisation data during the calendar year concerned. If the Secretary of State believes that significant processing errors have occurred giving rise to a contravention of any of the requirements of this Part which relate to the filtering arrangements, the Secretary of State must report that fact immediately to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. In this section “authorisation data”, in relation to an authorisation, means communications data that is, or is to be, obtained in pursuance of the authorisation or any data from which that data is, or may be, derived. Schedule 4 (relevant public authorities and designated senior officers etc.) has effect. A public authority listed in column 1 of the table in the Schedule is a relevant public authority for the purposes of this Part. An authorisation under section 60A may be granted on the application of a relevant public authority listed in column 1 of the table only if section 60A(1)(a) is met in relation to a purpose within one of the paragraphs of section 60A(7) specified in the corresponding entry in column 2 of the table. In this Part “designated senior officer”, in relation to a relevant public authority listed in column 1 of the table, means an individual who holds with the authority— an office, rank or position specified in relation to the authority in column 3 of the table, or an office, rank or position higher than that specified in relation to the authority in column 3 of the table (subject to subsections (4) and (5)). Subsection (5) applies where an office, rank or position specified in relation to a relevant public authority in column 3 of the table is specified by reference to— a particular branch, agency or other part of the authority, or responsibility for functions of a particular description. A person is a designated senior officer by virtue of subsection (3)(b) only if the person— holds an office, rank or position in that branch, agency or part, or has responsibility for functions of that description. A person who is a designated senior officer of a relevant public authority by virtue of subsection(3) and an entry in column 3 of the table may grant an authorisation under section 61— only for obtaining communications data of the kind specified in the corresponding entry in column 4 of the table, only if one or more paragraphs of section 61(7) is specified in the corresponding entry in column 5 of the table, and only if section 61(1)(a) is met in relation to a purpose within the specified paragraph or, if more than one paragraph is specified, a purpose within one of them. A person who is a designated senior officer of a relevant public authority by virtue of subsection (3) and an entry in column 3 of the table may grant an authorisation under section 61A— only for obtaining communications data of the kind specified in the corresponding entry in column 4 of the table, ... only if one or more paragraphs of section 61A(7) is specified in the corresponding entry in column 6 of the table, and only if section 61A(1)(a) is met in relation to a purpose within the specified paragraph or, if more than one paragraph is specified, a purpose within one of them. Where there is more than one entry in relation to a relevant public authority in column 3 of the table, and a person is a designated senior officer of the authority by virtue of subsection (3) as it applies to more than one of those entries, subsections (5A) and (6) apply in relation to each entry. The Secretary of State may by regulations modify section 70 or Schedule 4. Regulations under subsection (1) may in particular— add a public authority to, or remove a public authority from, the list in column 1 of the table, modify an entry in column 2 of the table, impose or remove restrictions on the authorisations that may be granted ..., impose or remove restrictions on the circumstances in which or purposes for which the authorisations may be granted. Regulations adding a public authority to, or removing a public authority from, the list in column 1 of the table may do so in relation to all or any of the following— authorisations under section 60A by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner; authorisations by a designated senior officer under section 61; authorisations by a designated senior officer under section 61A. The power to make regulations under subsection (1) includes power to make such modifications in any enactment (including this Act) as the Secretary of State considers appropriate in consequence of a person becoming, or ceasing to be, a relevant public authority (in relation to one or more of the authorisations mentioned in subsection (2A)) because of regulations under that subsection. This section applies to regulations under section 71 other than regulations which do only one or both of the following— remove a public authority from the list in column 1 of the table in Schedule 4 (in relation to one or more of the authorisations mentioned in section 71(2A) and make consequential modifications, modify column 3 of the table in a way that does not involve replacing an office, rank or position specified in that column in relation to a particular public authority with a lower office, rank or position in relation to the same authority. Before making regulations to which this section applies, the Secretary of State must consult— the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, and the public authority to which the modifications relate. A statutory instrument containing regulations to which this section applies may not be made except in accordance with the enhanced affirmative procedure. A local authority is a relevant public authority for the purposes of this Part but only so far as relating to authorisations under section 60A. An authorisation may not be granted under section 60A on the application of a local authority unless— section 60A(1)(a) is met in relation to a purpose within section 60A(7)(b), the local authority is a party to a collaboration agreement (whether as a supplying authority or a subscribing authority or both), and that collaboration agreement is certified by the Secretary of State (having regard to guidance given by virtue of section 79(6) and (7)) as being appropriate for the local authority. In subsection (3)— “collaboration agreement” means an agreement under section 78 that falls within subsection (1)(b)(iii) of that section, “subscribing authority” has the same meaning as in section 78, “supplying authority” has the same meaning as in section 78. Before making an application for an authorisation under section 60A, the officer making the application must consult a person who is acting as a single point of contact in relation to the making of applications. Before granting an authorisation under section 61 or 61A, the designated senior officer must consult a person who is acting as a single point of contact in relation to the granting of authorisations. But, if the officer or (as the case may be) designated senior officer considers that there are exceptional circumstances which mean that subsection (A1) or (as the case may be) (1) should not apply in a particular case, that subsection does not apply in that case. an imminent threat to life or another emergency, or the interests of national security. A person is acting as a single point of contact if that person— is an officer of a relevant public authority, and is responsible for advising— officers of the relevant public authority about applying for authorisations (whether under section 60A, 61 or 61A), or designated senior officers of the relevant public authority about granting authorisations. A person acting as a single point of contact may, in particular, advise an officer of a relevant public authority who is considering whether to apply for an authorisation about— the most appropriate methods for obtaining data where the data concerned is processed by more than one telecommunications operator, the cost, and resource implications, for— the relevant public authority concerned of obtaining the data, and the telecommunications operator concerned of disclosing the data, any unintended consequences of the proposed authorisation, and any issues as to the lawfulness of the proposed authorisation. A person acting as a single point of contact may, in particular, advise a designated senior officer who is considering whether to grant an authorisation about— whether it is reasonably practical to obtain the data sought in pursuance of the proposed authorisation, A person acting as a single point of contact may also provide advice about— whether requirements imposed by virtue of an authorisation have been met, the use in support of operations or investigations of communications data obtained in pursuance of an authorisation, and any other effects of an authorisation. Nothing in this section prevents a person acting as a single point of contact from also applying for, or being granted, an authorisation or, in the case of a designated senior officer, granting an authorisation. Subsection (2) applies if— a designated senior officer has granted an authorisation under section 61 or 61A in relation to the obtaining by a relevant public authority of communications data for the purpose of identifying or confirming a source of journalistic information, and the authorisation is not necessary because of an imminent threat to life.

Subsection (2) also applies if— a person to whom functions under section 60A have been delegated under section 238(5) has granted an authorisation under that section in relation to the obtaining by a relevant public authority of communications data for the purpose of identifying or confirming a source of journalistic information, and The authorisation is not to take effect until such time (if any) as a Judicial Commissioner has approved it. The relevant public authority for which the authorisation has been granted may apply to a Judicial Commissioner for approval of the authorisation. The applicant is not required to give notice of the application to— any person to whom the authorisation relates, or that person's legal representatives. A Judicial Commissioner may approve the authorisation if, and only if, the Judicial Commissioner considers that— at the time of the grant, there were reasonable grounds for considering that the requirements of this Part were satisfied in relation to the authorisation, and at the time when the Judicial Commissioner is considering the matter, there are reasonable grounds for considering that the requirements of this Part would be satisfied if an equivalent new authorisation were granted at that time. In considering whether the position is as mentioned in subsection (5)(a) and (b), the Judicial Commissioner must, in particular, have regard to— the public interest in protecting a source of journalistic information, and the need for there to be another overriding public interest before a relevant public authority seeks to identify or confirm a source of journalistic information. Where, on an application under this section, the Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the grant of the authorisation, the Judicial Commissioner may quash the authorisation. A collaboration agreement is an agreement (other than a police collaboration agreement) under which— a relevant public authority (“the supplying authority”) puts the services of ...designated senior officers of that authority or other officers of that authority at the disposal of another relevant public authority (“the subscribing authority”) for the purposes of the subscribing authority's functions under this Part, and a designated senior officer of the supplying authority is permitted to grant authorisations under section 61 or 61A to officers of the subscribing authority, officers of the supplying authority are permitted to be granted authorisations under section 61 or 61A by a designated senior officer of the subscribing authority, or officers of the supplying authority act as single points of contact for officers of the subscribing authority. The persons by whom, or to whom, authorisations may be granted (or who may act as single points of contact) under a collaboration agreement are additional to those persons by whom, or to whom, authorisations would otherwise be granted under this Part (or who could otherwise act as single points of contact). In a case falling within subsection (1)(b)(i)— section 61 has effect as if— in subsection (2) the reference to an officer of the authority were a reference to an officer of the subscribing authority, and in subsection (6)(b)(ii) the reference to an officer of the same relevant public authority as an authorised officer included a reference to an officer of the supplying authority, section 61A has effect as if— in subsection (2) the reference to an officer of the relevant public authority were a reference to an officer of the subscribing authority, and in subsection (6)(b)(ii) the reference to an officer of the same relevant public authority as an authorised officer included a reference to an officer of the supplying authority, and this Part has effect as if the designated senior officer of the supplying authority had the power to grant an authorisation under section 61 or 61A to officers of the subscribing authority, and had other functions in relation to the authorisation, which were the same as (and subject to no greater or lesser restrictions than) the power and other functions which the designated senior officer of the subscribing authority who would otherwise have dealt with the authorisation would have had. In a case falling within subsection (1)(b)(ii)— in subsection (2) the reference to an officer of the authority were a reference to an officer of the supplying authority, and in subsection (6)(b)(ii) the reference to an officer of the same relevant public authority as an authorised officer included a reference to an officer of the subscribing authority, and in subsection (2) the reference to an officer of the relevant public authority were a reference to an officer of the supplying authority, and in subsection (6)(b)(ii) the reference to an officer of the same relevant public authority as an authorised officer included a reference to an officer of the subscribing authority. In a case falling within subsection (1)(b)(iii), section 76(4)(b) has effect as if the references to the relevant public authority were references to the subscribing authority. “force collaboration provision” has the meaning given by paragraph (a) of section 22A(2) of the Police Act 1996 but as if the reference in that paragraph to a police force included the National Crime Agency, “police collaboration agreement” means a collaboration agreement under section 22A of the Police Act 1996 which contains force collaboration provision. A collaboration agreement may provide for payments to be made between parties to the agreement. A collaboration agreement— must be in writing, may be varied by a subsequent collaboration agreement, and may be brought to an end by agreement between the parties to it. A person who makes a collaboration agreement must— publish the agreement, or publish the fact that the agreement has been made and such other details about it as the person considers appropriate. A relevant public authority may enter into a collaboration agreement as a supplying authority, a subscribing authority or both (whether or not it would have power to do so apart from this section). The Secretary of State may, after consulting a relevant public authority, direct it to enter into a collaboration agreement if the Secretary of State considers that entering into the agreement would assist the effective exercise by the authority, or another relevant public authority, of its functions under this Part. A code of practice under Schedule 7 must include guidance to relevant public authorities about collaboration agreements. The guidance must include guidance about the criteria the Secretary of State will use in considering whether a collaboration agreement is appropriate for a relevant public authority. the chief officer of police of an England and Wales police force (“force 1”) has entered into a police collaboration agreement for the purposes of a collaborating police force's functions under this Part, and under the terms of the agreement— a designated senior officer of force 1 is permitted to grant authorisations under section 61 or 61A to officers of the collaborating police force, officers of force 1 are permitted to be granted authorisations under section 61 or 61A by a designated senior officer of the collaborating police force, or officers of force 1 act as single points of contact for officers of the collaborating police force. The persons by whom, or to whom, authorisations may be granted (or who may act as single points of contact) under a police collaboration agreement are additional to those persons by whom, or to whom, authorisations would otherwise be granted under this Part (or who could otherwise act as single points of contact). in subsection (2) the reference to an officer of the authority were a reference to an officer of the collaborating police force, and in subsection (6)(b)(ii) the reference to an officer of the same relevant public authority as an authorised officer included a reference to an officer of force 1, in subsection (2) the reference to an officer of the relevant public authority were a reference to an officer of the collaborating police force, and in subsection (6)(b)(ii) the reference to an officer of the same relevant public authority as an authorised officer included a reference to an officer of force 1, and this Part has effect as if the designated senior officer of force 1 had the power to grant an authorisation under section 61 or 61A to officers of the collaborating police force, and had other functions in relation to the authorisation, which were the same as (and subject to no greater or lesser restrictions than) the power and other functions which the designated senior officer of the collaborating police force who would otherwise have dealt with the authorisation would have had. in subsection (2) the reference to an officer of the authority were a reference to an officer of force 1, and in subsection (6)(b)(ii) the reference to an officer of the same relevant public authority as an authorised officer included a reference to an officer of the collaborating police force, and in subsection (2) the reference to an officer of the relevant public authority were a reference to an officer of force 1, and in subsection (6)(b)(ii) the reference to an officer of the same relevant public authority as an authorised officer included a reference to an officer of the collaborating police force. In a case falling within subsection (1)(b)(iii), section 76(4)(b) has effect as if the references to the relevant public authority were references to the collaborating police force. “collaborating police force”, in relation to a police collaboration agreement, means a police force (other than force 1) whose chief officer of police is a party to the agreement, “England and Wales police force” means— any police force maintained under section 2 of the Police Act 1996 (police forces in England and Wales outside London), the metropolitan police force, or the City of London police force, “police collaboration agreement” has the same meaning as in section 78 (see subsection (6) of that section), and references in this section to an England and Wales police force or a police force include the National Crime Agency (and references to the chief officer of police include the Director General of the National Crime Agency). Conduct is lawful for all purposes if— it is conduct in which any person is authorised to engage by an authorisation or required to undertake by virtue of a notice given in pursuance of an authorisation, and the conduct is in accordance with, or in pursuance of, the authorisation or notice. A person (whether or not the person so authorised or required) is not to be subject to any civil liability in respect of conduct that— is incidental to, or is reasonably undertaken in connection with, conduct that is lawful by virtue of subsection (1), and is not itself conduct for which an authorisation or warrant— is capable of being granted under any of the enactments mentioned in subsection (3), and might reasonably have been expected to have been sought in the case in question. The enactments referred to in subsection (2)(b)(i) are— an enactment contained in this Act, an enactment contained in the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, an enactment contained in Part 3 of the Police Act 1997 (powers of the police and of customs officers), or section 5 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (warrants for the intelligence services). It is an offence for a telecommunications operator, or any person employed or engaged for the purposes of the business of a telecommunications operator, to disclose, without reasonable excuse, to any person the existence of— any requirement imposed on the operator by virtue of this Part to disclose communications data relating to that person, or any request made in pursuance of an authorisation for the operator to disclose such data. For the purposes of subsection (1), it is, in particular, a reasonable excuse if the disclosure is made with the permission of the relevant public authority which is seeking to obtain the data from the operator (whether the permission is contained in any notice requiring the operator to disclose the data or otherwise). The Secretary of State may by regulations provide for— any function under sections 67 to 69 which is exercisable by the Secretary of State to be exercisable instead by another public authority, or any function under sections 67 to 69 which is exercisable by a public authority by virtue of paragraph (a) to be exercisable instead by the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may by regulations modify any enactment about a public authority for the purpose of enabling or otherwise facilitating any function exercisable by the Secretary of State under this Part to be exercisable on behalf of the Secretary of State by the authority concerned. Regulations under subsection (2) do not affect the Secretary of State's responsibility for the exercise of the functions concerned. Subsection (2) does not apply in relation to any function of the Secretary of State of making regulations. Schedule 5 (which contains further safeguards and provisions supplementing this section) has effect. This Part applies to postal operators and postal services as it applies to telecommunications operators and telecommunications services. In its application by virtue of subsection (1), this Part has effect as if— any reference to a telecommunications operator were a reference to a postal operator, any reference to a telecommunications service were a reference to a postal service, any reference to a telecommunication system were a reference to a postal service, sections 61(3)(a) and 62 were omitted, ... the reference in sections 60A(8)(a), 61(7A)(a) and 61A(8)(a) to events data were a reference to anything within paragraph (a) or (b) of the definition of “communications data” in section 262(3), and in Part 2 of Schedule 4, for “which is entity data” there were substituted “ within paragraph (c) of the definition of “communications data” in section 262(3) ”. An authorisation may relate to conduct outside the United Kingdom and persons outside the United Kingdom. A notice given in pursuance of an authorisation may relate to conduct outside the United Kingdom and persons outside the United Kingdom. Where such a notice is to be given to a person outside the United Kingdom, the notice may be given to the person in any of the following ways (as well as by electronic or other means of service)— by delivering it to the person's principal office within the United Kingdom or, if the person has no such office in the United Kingdom, to any place in the United Kingdom where the person carries on business or conducts activities, if the person has specified an address in the United Kingdom as one at which the person, or someone on the person's behalf, will accept documents of the same description as a notice, by delivering it to that address, by notifying the person by such other means as the authorised officer considers appropriate (which may include notifying the person orally). In determining for the purposes of subsection (3) of section 66 whether it is reasonably practicable for a telecommunications operator outside the United Kingdom to take any steps in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom for the purpose of complying with a duty imposed by virtue of subsection (1) or (2) of that section, the matters to be taken into account include the following— the extent to which it is reasonably practicable to comply with the duty in a way that does not breach any of those requirements or restrictions. Nothing in the definition of “telecommunications operator” limits the type of communications data in relation to which an authorisation, or a request or requirement of a kind which gives rise to a duty under section 66(1) or (2), may apply. “authorisation” means an authorisation under section 60A, 61 or 61A (including sections 61 and 61A as modified by sections 78 and 80), “designated senior officer”— in relation to any ... relevant public authority, has the meaning given by section 70(3), “filtering arrangements” means any arrangements under section 67(1), “officer”, in relation to a relevant public authority, means a person holding an office, rank or position with that authority, “relevant public authority” means a public authority which is a relevant public authority for the purposes of this Part by virtue of section 70(2) or 73(1). In this Part “local authority” means— a district or county council in England, a London borough council, the Common Council of the City of London in its capacity as a local authority, the Council of the Isles of Scilly, a county council or county borough council in Wales, a council constituted under section 2 of the Local Government etc. (Scotland) Act 1994, and a district council in Northern Ireland. In this Part, “serious crime” means, in addition to crime which falls within paragraph (a) or (b) of the definition of “serious crime” in section 263(1), crime where the offence, or one of the offences, which is or would be constituted by the conduct concerned is— an offence for which an individual who has reached the age of 18 (or, in relation to Scotland or Northern Ireland, 21) is capable of being sentenced to imprisonment for a term of 12 months or more (disregarding any enactment prohibiting or restricting the imprisonment of individuals who have no previous convictions), or an offence— by a person who is not an individual, or which involves, as an integral part of it, the sending of a communication or a breach of a person’s privacy. The Secretary of State may, by notice (a “retention notice”) and subject as follows, require a telecommunications operator to retain relevant communications data if— the Secretary of State considers that the requirement is necessary and proportionate for one or more of the following purposes— for the applicable crime purpose (see subsection (10A)), to assist investigations into alleged miscarriages of justice, and the decision to give the notice has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. A retention notice may— relate to a particular operator or any description of operators, require the retention of all data or any description of data, identify the period or periods for which data is to be retained, contain other requirements, or restrictions, in relation to the retention of data, make different provision for different purposes, relate to data whether or not in existence at the time of the giving, or coming into force, of the notice. A retention notice must not require any data to be retained for more than 12 months beginning with— in the case of communications data relating to a specific communication, the day of the communication concerned, in the case of entity data which does not fall within paragraph (a) above but does fall within paragraph (a)(i) of the definition of “communications data” in section 261(5), the day on which the entity concerned ceases to be associated with the telecommunications service concerned or (if earlier) the day on which the data is changed, and in any other case, the day on which the data is first held by the operator concerned. A retention notice must not require an operator who controls or provides a telecommunication system (“the system operator”) to retain data , other than data which is, or can only be obtained by processing, an internet connection record, which— relates to the use of a telecommunications service provided (solely or jointly with another person) by another telecommunications operator in relation to that system, does not relate to a relevant roaming service, is (or is capable of being) processed by the system operator as a result of being comprised in, included as part of, attached to or logically associated with a communication transmitted by means of the system as a result of the use mentioned in paragraph (a), is not needed by the system operator for the functioning of the system in relation to that communication, and is not retained or used by the system operator for any other lawful purpose, and which it is reasonably practicable to separate from other data which is subject to the notice. In subsection (4) “relevant roaming service” means a telecommunications service provided by the system operator under an agreement with a telecommunications operator outside the United Kingdom (the “non-UK operator”) which facilitates the use by persons in the United Kingdom of the system operator’s telecommunication system to access one or more telecommunications services of the non-UK operator. A retention notice which relates to data already in existence when the notice comes into force imposes a requirement to retain the data for only so much of a period of retention as occurs on or after the coming into force of the notice. A retention notice comes into force— when the notice is given to the operator (or description of operators) concerned, or (if later) at the time or times specified in the notice. A retention notice ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless before the end of that period— it is varied in accordance with section 94(4) so as to require the retention of additional relevant communications data, it is renewed (see section 94A), or it is revoked or otherwise ceases to have effect (see sections 90(10) and 94). In subsection (6A) the “relevant period” means the period of two years beginning with— in the case of a retention notice that has not been varied as mentioned in subsection (6A)(a) or renewed, the day on which the notice comes into force, or in the case of a retention notice that has been so varied or renewed, the day after the day at the end of which the retention notice would have ceased to have effect if it had not been so varied or renewed. A retention notice is given to an operator (or description of operators) by giving, or publishing, it in such manner as the Secretary of State considers appropriate for bringing it to the attention of the operator (or description of operators) to whom it relates. A retention notice must specify— the operator (or description of operators) to whom it relates, each telecommunications service (or description of telecommunications service) to which it relates, the data which is to be retained, the period or periods for which the data is to be retained, any other requirements, or any restrictions, in relation to the retention of the data, the information required by section 249(7) (the level or levels of contribution in respect of costs incurred as a result of the notice). The requirements or restrictions mentioned in subsection (8)(d) may, in particular, include— a requirement to retain the data in such a way that it can be transmitted efficiently and effectively in response to requests, requirements or restrictions in relation to the obtaining (whether by collection, generation or otherwise), generation or processing of— data for retention, or retained data. The fact that the data which would be retained under a retention notice relates to the activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the requirement to retain the data is necessary for one or more of the purposes falling within sub-paragraphs (i) to (vi) of subsection (1)(a). In this section, “the applicable crime purpose” means— to the extent that a retention notice relates to events data, the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime; to the extent that a retention notice relates to entity data, the purpose of preventing or detecting crime or of preventing disorder. In subsection (10A)(a), “serious crime” means, in addition to crime which falls within paragraph (a) or (b) of the definition of “serious crime” in section 263(1), crime where the offence, or one of the offences, which is or would be constituted by the conduct concerned is— In this Part “relevant communications data” means communications data which may be used to identify, or assist in identifying, any of the following— the sender or recipient of a communication (whether or not a person), the time or duration of a communication, the type, method or pattern, or fact, of communication, the telecommunication system (or any part of it) from, to or through which, or by means of which, a communication is or may be transmitted, or the location of any such system, (and this expression therefore includes, in particular, internet connection records). Before giving a retention notice , including in relation to one or more of the purposes mentioned in sub-paragraphs (i) to (vi) of section 87(1)(a) (purposes for which retention of communications data may be required), the Secretary of State must, among other matters, take into account— the likely benefits of the notice, the telecommunications services to which the retention notice relates, the appropriateness of limiting the data to be retained by reference to— location, or descriptions of persons to whom telecommunications services are provided, the likely number of users (if known) of any telecommunications service to which the notice relates, the technical feasibility of complying with the notice, the likely cost of complying with the notice, and any other effect of the notice on the telecommunications operator (or description of operators) to whom it relates. Before giving such a notice, the Secretary of State must take reasonable steps to consult any operator to whom it relates. In deciding whether to approve a decision to give a retention notice, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to whether the requirement to be imposed by the notice to retain relevant communications data is necessary and proportionate for one or more of the purposes falling within sub-paragraphs (i) to (vi) of section 87(1)(a). Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to give a retention notice, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to give a retention notice, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to give the notice. A telecommunications operator to whom a retention notice is given may, within such period or circumstances as may be provided for by regulations made by the Secretary of State, refer the notice back to the Secretary of State. Such a reference may be in relation to the whole of a notice or any aspect of it. In the case of a notice given to a description of operators— each operator falling within that description may make a reference under subsection (1), but each such reference may only be in relation to the notice, or aspect of the notice, so far as it applies to that operator. Where a telecommunications operator refers a retention notice under subsection (1)— there is no requirement for the operator to comply with the notice, so far as referred, and subsection (4A) applies to the operator, until the Secretary of State has reviewed the notice in accordance with subsection (5). Where this subsection applies to a telecommunications operator, the operator must not make any relevant changes to telecommunications services or telecommunication systems to which obligations imposed by the retention notice relate. In subsection (4A) “relevant change” means a change that, if implemented, would have a negative effect on the capability of the operator to provide any assistance which the operator may be required to provide in relation to any warrant, authorisation or notice issued or given under this Act. The Secretary of State must , before the end of the review period, review any notice so far as referred to the Secretary of State under subsection (1) (and accordingly decide what action to take under subsection (10)). In subsection (5) “the review period” means— such period as may be provided for by regulations made by the Secretary of State, or if that period is extended by the Secretary of State in accordance with the regulations (see subsection (14)), such extended period. Before deciding the review, the Secretary of State must consult— the Technical Advisory Board, and a Judicial Commissioner. The Board must consider the technical requirements and the financial consequences, for the operator who has made the reference, of the notice so far as referred. The Commissioner must consider whether the notice so far as referred is proportionate. The Board and the Commissioner must— give the operator concerned and the Secretary of State the opportunity to provide evidence, or make representations, to them before reaching their conclusions, and report their conclusions to— the operator, and the Secretary of State. The Commissioner may give a direction to the operator concerned or the Secretary of State specifying the period within which the operator or the Secretary of State (as the case may be) may provide evidence, or make representations, in accordance with subsection (9)(a). If the Commissioner gives such a direction to the operator or the Secretary of State, the Board and the Commissioner are not required to take into account any evidence provided, or representations made, by the operator or the Secretary of State (as the case may be) after the end of that period. The Secretary of State must, after considering the conclusions of the Board and the Commissioner but before the end of the relevant period, decide whether to— vary or revoke the retention notice under section 94, or give a notice under this section to the operator concerned confirming its effect. But the Secretary of State may vary the notice, or give a notice under subsection (10)(b) confirming its effect, only if the Secretary of State's decision to do so has been approved by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. In subsection (10) “the relevant period” means— if that period is extended by the Secretary of State in accordance with the regulations (see subsection (15)), such extended period. A report or notice under this section is given to an operator by giving or publishing it in such manner as the Secretary of State considers appropriate for bringing it to the attention of the operator. The Secretary of State must keep a retention notice under review (whether or not referred under subsection (1)). Regulations under subsection (5A)(a) may include provision enabling any period provided for by the regulations to be extended by the Secretary of State where the extension is agreed by the Secretary of State, the telecommunications operator concerned and a Judicial Commissioner. Regulations under subsection (11A)(a) may include provision enabling any period provided for by the regulations to be extended by the Secretary of State— where the Secretary of State considers that there are exceptional circumstances that justify the extension, or in any other circumstances specified in the regulations. Where regulations under subsection (11A)(a) include provision mentioned in subsection (15), the regulations must also include provision requiring the Secretary of State to notify a Judicial Commissioner and the telecommunications operator concerned of the duration of any extended period. In deciding whether to approve a decision to vary a retention notice as mentioned in section 90(10)(a), or to give a notice under section 90(10)(b) confirming the effect of a retention notice, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to whether the requirement to be imposed by the notice as varied or confirmed to retain relevant communications data is necessary and proportionate for one or more of the purposes falling within sub-paragraphs (i) to (vi) of section 87(1)(a). In doing so, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must— consider the matters referred to in subsection (1) with a sufficient degree of care as to ensure that the Investigatory Powers Commissioner complies with the duties imposed by section 2 (general duties in relation to privacy). Where the Investigatory Powers Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to vary a retention notice as mentioned in section 90(10)(a), or to give a notice under section 90(10)(b) confirming the effect of a retention notice, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. A telecommunications operator who retains relevant communications data by virtue of this Part must— secure that the data is of the same integrity, and subject to at least the same security and protection, as the data on any system from which it is derived, secure, by appropriate technical and organisational measures, that the data can be accessed only by specially authorised personnel, and protect, by appropriate technical and organisational measures, the data against accidental or unlawful destruction, accidental loss or alteration, or unauthorised or unlawful retention, processing, access or disclosure. A telecommunications operator who retains relevant communications data by virtue of this Part must destroy the data if the retention of the data ceases to be authorised by virtue of this Part and is not otherwise authorised by law. The destruction of the data may take place at such monthly or shorter intervals as appear to the operator to be practicable. A telecommunications operator must put in place adequate security systems (including technical and organisational measures) governing access to relevant communications data retained by virtue of this Part in order to protect against any unlawful disclosure. The Secretary of State may vary a retention notice. The Secretary of State must give, or publish, notice of the variation in such manner as the Secretary of State considers appropriate for bringing the variation to the attention of the telecommunications operator (or description of operators) to whom it relates. A variation comes into force— when notice of it is given or published in accordance with subsection (2), or (if later) at the time or times specified in the notice of variation. A retention notice may not be varied so as to require the retention of additional relevant communications data unless— the Secretary of State considers that the requirement is necessary and proportionate for one or more of the purposes falling within sub-paragraphs (i) to (vi) of section 87(1)(a), and subject to subsection (6), the decision to vary the notice has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. The fact that additional relevant communications data which would be retained under a retention notice as varied relates to the activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the requirement to retain the data is necessary for one or more of the purposes falling within sub-paragraphs (i) to (vi) of section 87(1)(a). Subsection (4)(b) does not apply to a variation to which section 90(11) applies. Section 87(2) and (5) apply in relation to a retention notice as varied as they apply in relation to a retention notice, but as if the references to the notice coming into force included references to the variation coming into force. Sections 87(3), (4) and (8), 95 and 97, and subsections (1), (4), (13) and (16) of this section, apply in relation to a retention notice as varied as they apply in relation to a retention notice. Section 88 applies in relation to the making of a variation as it applies in relation to the giving of a retention notice (and, accordingly, the references to the notice in section 88(1)(a) to (e) are to be read as references to the variation). Section 89 applies in relation to a decision to vary to which subsection (4)(b) above applies as it applies in relation to a decision to give a retention notice (and, accordingly, the reference in subsection (1) of that section to the requirement to be imposed by the notice is to be read as a reference to the requirement to be imposed by the variation). Section 90 applies (but only so far as the variation is concerned) in relation to a retention notice as varied (other than one varied as mentioned in subsection (10)(a) of that section) as it applies in relation to a retention notice. Section 91 applies in relation to a decision under section 90(10) to vary or confirm a variation as it applies in relation to a decision to vary or confirm a retention notice (and, accordingly, the reference in subsection (1) of that section to the requirement to be imposed by the notice as varied or confirmed is to be read as a reference to the requirement to be imposed by the variation as varied or confirmed). The Secretary of State may revoke (whether wholly or in part) a retention notice. The Secretary of State must give or publish notice of the revocation in such manner as the Secretary of State considers appropriate for bringing the revocation to the attention of the operator (or description of operators) to whom it relates. A revocation comes into force— when notice of it is given or published in accordance with subsection (14), or (if later) at the time or times specified in the notice of revocation. The fact that a retention notice has been revoked in relation to a particular description of communications data and a particular operator (or description of operators) does not prevent the giving of another retention notice in relation to the same description of data and the same operator (or description of operators). If the renewal conditions are met, a retention notice may be renewed, at any time during the renewal period, by a notice given by the Secretary of State. that the Secretary of State considers that the requirement in the retention notice for a telecommunications operator to retain relevant communications data is still necessary and proportionate for one or more of the purposes falling within sub-paragraphs (i) to (vi) of section 87(1)(a), and that the decision to renew the notice has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. The renewal period means the period of 30 days ending with the day at the end of which the retention notice would otherwise cease to have effect. The Secretary of State must give, or publish, notice of the renewal in such manner as the Secretary of State considers appropriate for bringing the renewal to the attention of the telecommunications operator (or description of operators) to whom it relates. Sections 87(10), 88, 89 and 90 apply in relation to the renewal of a retention notice as they apply in relation to the giving of a retention notice. It is the duty of a telecommunications operator on whom a requirement or restriction is imposed by— a retention notice, or section 92 or 93, to comply with the requirement or restriction. A telecommunications operator, or any person employed or engaged for the purposes of the business of a telecommunications operator, must not disclose the existence or contents of a retention notice to any other person. The Information Commissioner, or any member of staff of the Information Commissioner, must not disclose the existence or contents of a retention notice to any other person. Subsections (2) and (3) do not apply to a disclosure made with the permission of the Secretary of State. The duty under subsection (1) or (2) , or under section 90(4A), is enforceable (whether or not the person is in the United Kingdom) by civil proceedings by the Secretary of State for an injunction, or for specific performance of a statutory duty under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988, or for any other appropriate relief. in section 87(3), for paragraph (b) there were substituted— in the case of communications data which does not fall within paragraph (a) above but does fall within paragraph (c) of the definition of “communications data” in section 262(3), the day on which the person concerned leaves the postal service concerned or (if earlier) the day on which the data is changed, for section 87(4) there were substituted— A retention notice must not require an operator who provides a postal service (“the network operator”) to retain data which— relates to the use of a postal service provided by another postal operator in relation to the postal service of the network operator, is (or is capable of being) processed by the network operator as a result of being comprised in, included as part of, attached to or logically associated with a communication transmitted by means of the postal service of the network operator as a result of the use mentioned in paragraph (a), is not needed by the network operator for the functioning of the network operator's postal service in relation to that communication, and is not retained or used by the network operator for any other lawful purpose, the reference in section 87(10A)(a) to events data were a reference to anything within paragraph (a) or (b) of the definition of “communications data” in section 262(3), the reference in section 87(10A)(b) to entity data were a reference to anything within paragraph (c) of the definition of “communications data” in section 262(3), and in section 87(11), the words from “and this expression” to the end were omitted. A retention notice, and any requirement or restriction imposed by virtue of a retention notice or by section 92, 93 or 95(1) to (3), may relate to conduct outside the United Kingdom and persons outside the United Kingdom. “notice” means notice in writing, “relevant communications data” has the meaning given by section 87(11), “retention notice” has the meaning given by section 87(1). There are two kinds of warrants which may be issued under this Part— targeted equipment interference warrants (see subsection (2)); targeted examination warrants (see subsection (9)). A targeted equipment interference warrant is a warrant which authorises or requires the person to whom it is addressed to secure interference with any equipment for the purpose of obtaining— communications (see section 135); equipment data (see section 100); any other information. A targeted equipment interference warrant— must also authorise or require the person to whom it is addressed to secure the obtaining of the communications, equipment data or other information to which the warrant relates; may also authorise that person to secure the disclosure, in any manner described in the warrant, of anything obtained under the warrant by virtue of paragraph (a). The reference in subsections (2) and (3) to the obtaining of communications or other information includes doing so by— monitoring, observing or listening to a person's communications or other activities; recording anything which is monitored, observed or listened to. A targeted equipment interference warrant also authorises the following conduct (in addition to the conduct described in the warrant)— any conduct which it is necessary to undertake in order to do what is expressly authorised or required by the warrant, including conduct for securing the obtaining of communications, equipment data or other information; any conduct by any person which is conduct in pursuance of a requirement imposed by or on behalf of the person to whom the warrant is addressed to be provided with assistance in giving effect to the warrant. A targeted equipment interference warrant may not, by virtue of subsection (3), authorise or require a person to engage in conduct, in relation to a communication other than a stored communication, which would (unless done with lawful authority) constitute an offence under section 3(1) (unlawful interception). Subsection (5)(a) does not authorise a person to engage in conduct which could not be expressly authorised under the warrant because of the restriction imposed by subsection (6). In subsection (6), “stored communication” means a communication stored in or by a telecommunication system (whether before or after its transmission). A targeted examination warrant is a warrant which authorises the person to whom it is addressed to carry out the selection of protected material obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant for examination, in breach of the prohibition in section 193(4) (prohibition on seeking to identify communications of, or private information relating to, individuals in the British Islands). In this Part, “protected material”, in relation to a targeted examination warrant, means any material obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant under Chapter 3 of Part 6, other than material which is— equipment data; information (other than a communication or equipment data) which is not private information. For provision enabling the combination of targeted equipment interference warrants with certain other warrants or authorisations (including targeted examination warrants), see Schedule 8. Any conduct which is carried out in accordance with a warrant under this Part is lawful for all purposes. In this Part, “equipment data” means— systems data; data which falls within subsection (2). is, for the purposes of a relevant system, comprised in, included as part of, attached to or logically associated with a communication (whether by the sender or otherwise) or any other item of information, is capable of being logically separated from the remainder of the communication or the item of information, and if it were so separated, would not reveal anything of what might reasonably be considered to be the meaning (if any) of the communication or the item of information, disregarding any meaning arising from the fact of the communication or the existence of the item of information or from any data relating to that fact. In subsection (2), “relevant system” means any system on or by means of which the data is held. A targeted equipment interference warrant may relate to any one or more of the following matters— equipment belonging to, used by or in the possession of a particular person or organisation; equipment belonging to, used by or in the possession of a group of persons who share a common purpose or who carry on, or may carry on, a particular activity; equipment belonging to, used by or in the possession of more than one person or organisation, where the interference is for the purpose of a single investigation or operation; equipment in a particular location; equipment in more than one location, where the interference is for the purpose of a single investigation or operation; equipment which is being, or may be, used for the purposes of a particular activity or activities of a particular description; equipment which is being, or may be, used to test, maintain or develop capabilities relating to interference with equipment for the purpose of obtaining communications, equipment data or other information; equipment which is being, or may be, used for the training of persons who carry out, or are likely to carry out, such interference with equipment. A targeted examination warrant may relate to any one or more of the following matters— a particular person or organisation; more than one person or organisation, where the conduct authorised by the warrant is for the purpose of a single investigation or operation; the testing, maintenance or development of capabilities relating to the selection of protected material for examination; the training of persons who carry out, or are likely to carry out, the selection of such material for examination.

The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a targeted equipment interference warrant if— the Secretary of State considers that the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within subsection (5), the Secretary of State considers that satisfactory arrangements made for the purposes of sections 129 and 130 (safeguards relating to disclosure etc.) are in force in relation to the warrant, and But the Secretary of State may not issue a targeted equipment interference warrant under subsection (1) if— the Secretary of State considers that the only ground for considering the warrant to be necessary is for the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime, and the warrant, if issued, would authorise interference only with equipment which would be in Scotland at the time of the issue of the warrant or which the Secretary of State believes would be in Scotland at that time. For the power of the Scottish Ministers to issue a targeted equipment interference warrant, see section 103. the Secretary of State considers that the warrant is or may be necessary to authorise the selection of protected material for examination in breach of the prohibition in section 193(4) (prohibition on seeking to identify communications of, or private information relating to, individuals in the British Islands), and But the Secretary of State may not issue a targeted examination warrant under subsection (3) if— the warrant, if issued, would relate only to a person who would be in Scotland at the time of the issue of the warrant or whom the Secretary of State believes would be in Scotland at that time. For the power of the Scottish Ministers to issue a targeted examination warrant, see section 103. A warrant is necessary on grounds falling within this subsection if it is necessary— in the interests of the economic well-being of the United Kingdom so far as those interests are also relevant to the interests of national security. A warrant may be considered necessary on the ground falling within subsection (5)(c) only if the interference with equipment which would be authorised by the warrant is considered necessary for the purpose of obtaining information relating to the acts or intentions of persons outside the British Islands. The fact that the information which would be obtained under a warrant relates to the activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within subsection (5). An application for the issue of a warrant under this section may only be made on behalf of the head of an intelligence service by a person holding office under the Crown. The Scottish Ministers may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a targeted equipment interference warrant if— the warrant authorises interference only with equipment which is in Scotland at the time the warrant is issued or which the Scottish Ministers believe to be in Scotland at that time, the Scottish Ministers consider that the warrant is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime, the Scottish Ministers consider that satisfactory arrangements made for the purposes of sections 129 and 130 (safeguards relating to disclosure etc.) are in force in relation to the warrant, and the warrant relates only to a person who is in Scotland, or whom the Scottish Ministers believe to be in Scotland, at the time of the issue of the warrant, the Scottish Ministers consider that the warrant is or may be necessary to authorise the selection of protected material in breach of the prohibition in section 193(4) (prohibition on seeking to identify communications of, or private information relating to, individuals in the British Islands), and The fact that the information which would be obtained under a warrant relates to the activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the warrant is necessary as mentioned in subsection (1)(b) or (2)(b). The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the Chief of Defence Intelligence, issue a targeted equipment interference warrant if— the Secretary of State considers that the warrant is necessary in the interests of national security, The fact that the information which would be obtained under a warrant relates to the activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the warrant is necessary as mentioned in subsection (1)(a). An application for the issue of a warrant under this section may only be made on behalf of the Chief of Defence Intelligence by a person holding office under the Crown. The decision to issue a warrant under section 102 or 104 must be taken personally by the Secretary of State. The decision to issue a warrant under section 103 must be taken personally by a member of the Scottish Government. Before a warrant under section 102, 103 or 104 is issued, it must be signed by the person who has taken the decision to issue it (subject to subsection (4)). A law enforcement chief described in Part 1 or 2 of the table in Schedule 6 may, on an application made by a person who is an appropriate law enforcement officer in relation to the chief, issue a targeted equipment interference warrant if— the law enforcement chief considers that the warrant is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime, the law enforcement chief considers that the conduct authorised by the warrant is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, the law enforcement chief considers that satisfactory arrangements made for the purposes of sections 129 and 130 (safeguards relating to disclosure etc.) are in force in relation to the warrant, and except where the law enforcement chief considers that there is an urgent need to issue the warrant, the decision to issue the warrant has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. A law enforcement chief described in Part 1 of the table in Schedule 6 may, on an application made by a person who is an appropriate law enforcement officer in relation to the chief, issue a targeted equipment interference warrant if— the law enforcement chief considers that the warrant is necessary for the purpose of preventing death or any injury or damage to a person's physical or mental health or of mitigating any injury or damage to a person's physical or mental health, If it is not reasonably practicable for a law enforcement chief to consider an application under this section, an appropriate delegate may, in an urgent case, exercise the power to issue a targeted equipment interference warrant. For the purposes of this section— a person is a law enforcement chief if the person is listed in the first column of the table in Schedule 6; a person is an appropriate delegate in relation to a law enforcement chief listed in the first column if the person is listed in the corresponding entry in the second column of that table; a person is an appropriate law enforcement officer in relation to a law enforcement chief listed in the first column if the person is listed in the corresponding entry in the third column of that table. Where the law enforcement chief is the Chief Constable or the Deputy Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland, the reference in subsection (1)(a) to the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime includes a reference to the interests of national security. A law enforcement chief who is an immigration officer may consider that the condition in subsection (1)(a) is satisfied only if the serious crime relates to an offence which is an immigration or nationality offence (whether or not it also relates to other offences). A law enforcement chief who is an officer of Revenue and Customs may consider that the condition in subsection (1)(a) is satisfied only if the serious crime relates to an assigned matter within the meaning of section 1(1) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979. A law enforcement chief who is a designated customs official may consider that the condition in subsection (1)(a) is satisfied only if the serious crime relates to a matter in respect of which a designated customs official has functions. A law enforcement chief who is the chair of the Competition and Markets Authority may consider that the condition in subsection (1)(a) is satisfied only if the offence, or all of the offences, to which the serious crime relates are offences under section 188 of the Enterprise Act 2002. A law enforcement chief who is the Director General of the Independent Office for Police Conduct may consider that the condition in subsection (1)(a) is satisfied only if the offence, or all of the offences, to which the serious crime relates are offences that are being investigated as part of an investigation ... under Schedule 3 to the Police Reform Act 2002. A law enforcement chief who is the Service Police Complaints Commissioner may consider that the condition in subsection (1)(a) is satisfied only if the offence, or all of the offences, to which the serious crime relates are offences that are being investigated as part of an investigation carried out under regulations under section 340P of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (power to make further provision). A law enforcement chief who is the Police Investigations and Review Commissioner may consider that the condition in subsection (1)(a) is satisfied only if the offence, or all of the offences, to which the serious crime relates are offences that are being investigated under section 33A(b)(i) of the Police, Public Order and Criminal Justice (Scotland) Act 2006. For the purpose of subsection (7), an offence is an immigration or nationality offence if conduct constituting the offence— relates to the entitlement of one or more persons who are not nationals of the United Kingdom to enter, transit across, or be in, the United Kingdom (including conduct which relates to conditions or other controls on any such entitlement), or is undertaken for the purposes of or otherwise in relation to— the British Nationality Act 1981; the Hong Kong Act 1985; the Hong Kong (War Wives and Widows) Act 1996; the British Nationality (Hong Kong) Act 1997; the British Overseas Territories Act 2002; an instrument made under any of those Acts. “designated customs official” has the same meaning as in Part 1 of the Borders, Citizenship and Immigration Act 2009 (see section 14(6) of that Act); “immigration officer” means a person appointed as an immigration officer under paragraph 1 of Schedule 2 to the Immigration Act 1971. A law enforcement chief specified in subsection (2) may not issue a targeted equipment interference warrant under section 106 unless the law enforcement chief considers that there is a British Islands connection. The law enforcement chiefs specified in this subsection are— the Chief Constable of a police force maintained under section 2 of the Police Act 1996; the Commissioner, or an Assistant Commissioner, of the metropolitan police force; the Commissioner of Police for the City of London; the Chief Constable or a Deputy Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland; the Chief Constable of the British Transport Police Force; the Chief Constable of the Ministry for Defence Police; the Director General of the Independent Office for Police Conduct; the Service Police Complaints Commissioner; the Police Investigations and Review Commissioner. The Director General or a Deputy Director General of the National Crime Agency may not issue a targeted equipment interference warrant on the application of a member of a collaborative police force unless the Director General or the Deputy Director General (as the case may be) considers that there is a British Islands connection. “Collaborative police force” has the meaning given by paragraph 2 of Part 3 of Schedule 6. any of the conduct authorised by the warrant would take place in the British Islands (regardless of the location of the equipment that would, or may, be interfered with), any of the equipment which would, or may, be interfered with would, or may, be in the British Islands at some time while the interference is taking place, or communications sent by, or to, a person who is, or whom the law enforcement officer believes to be, for the time being in the British Islands, information relating to an individual who is, or whom the law enforcement officer believes to be, for the time being in the British Islands, or equipment data which forms part of, or is connected with, communications or information falling within sub-paragraph (i) or (ii). Except as provided by subsections (1) to (3), a targeted equipment interference warrant may be issued under section 106 whether or not the person who has power to issue the warrant considers that there is a British Islands connection. In deciding whether to approve a person's decision to issue a warrant under this Part, a Judicial Commissioner must review the person's conclusions as to the following matters— whether the warrant is necessary on any relevant grounds (see subsection (3)), and whether the conduct which would be authorised by the warrant is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct. In subsection (1)(a), “relevant grounds” means— in the case of a decision to issue a warrant under section 102, grounds falling within section 102(5); in the case of a decision to issue a warrant under section 103, the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime; in the case of a decision to issue a warrant under section 104, the interests of national security; in the case of a decision to issue a warrant under section 106(1), the purpose mentioned in section 106(1)(a); in the case of a decision to issue a warrant under section 106(3), the purpose mentioned in section 106(3)(a). Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a person's decision to issue a warrant under this Part, the Judicial Commissioner must give the person written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a person's decision to issue a warrant under this Part, the person may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to issue the warrant. a warrant under this Part is issued without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and the person who issued the warrant considered that there was an urgent need to issue it. The person who issued the warrant must inform a Judicial Commissioner that it has been issued. and section 108(5) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. Section 110 contains further provision about what happens if a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to issue a warrant. This section applies where under section 109(3) a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to issue a warrant. Where the refusal relates to a targeted equipment interference warrant, the Judicial Commissioner may— authorise further interference with equipment for the purpose of enabling the person to whom the warrant was addressed to secure that anything in the process of being done under the warrant stops as soon as possible; impose conditions as to the use or retention of any of that material. Where the refusal relates to a targeted examination warrant, the Judicial Commissioner may impose conditions as to the use of any protected material selected for examination under the warrant. may require an affected party to make representations about how the Judicial Commissioner should exercise any function under subsection (3) or (4), and Each of the following is an “affected party” for the purposes of subsection (5)— The person who decided to issue the warrant may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to review a decision made by any other Judicial Commissioner under subsection (3) or (4). On a review under subsection (7), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner may— Nothing in this section or section 109 affects the lawfulness of— anything done that it is not reasonably practicable to stop. Subsection (3) applies where— an application is made to the Secretary of State for a targeted equipment interference warrant, and the purpose of the warrant is to obtain— communications sent by, or intended for, a person who is a member of a relevant legislature, or a member of a relevant legislature's private information. Subsection (3) also applies where— an application is made to the Secretary of State for a targeted examination warrant, and the purpose of the warrant is to authorise the selection for examination of protected material which consists of— Subsection (5) applies where— an application is made under section 106 to a law enforcement chief for a targeted equipment interference warrant, and The law enforcement chief may not issue the warrant without the approval of the Secretary of State unless the law enforcement chief believes that the warrant (if issued) would authorise interference only with equipment which would be in Scotland at the time of the issue of the warrant or which the law enforcement chief believes would be in Scotland at that time. The Secretary of State may give approval for the purposes of subsection (5) only with the approval of In a case where the decision whether to issue a targeted equipment interference warrant is to be taken by an appropriate delegate in relation to a law enforcement chief under section 106(4), the reference in subsection (5) to the law enforcement chief is to be read as a reference to the appropriate delegate. Condition A is that the Prime Minister is unable to decide whether to give approval under subsection (3) or (as the case may be) (6), due to incapacity or inability to access secure communications. has the necessary operational awareness to decide whether to give approvals under subsection (3) or (6). an application is made for a warrant under this Part, and in the case of a targeted equipment interference warrant, to authorise or require interference with equipment for the purpose of obtaining items subject to legal privilege, or The application must contain a statement that the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is to authorise or require interference with equipment for the purpose of obtaining items subject to legal privilege or (in the case of a targeted examination warrant) the selection for examination of items subject to legal privilege. that there are exceptional and compelling circumstances which make it necessary to authorise or require interference with equipment for the purpose of obtaining items subject to legal privilege or (in the case of a targeted examination warrant) the selection for examination of items subject to legal privilege, and that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 129 or (as the case may be) section 191 (safeguards relating to retention and disclosure of material) include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of such items. But the warrant may not be issued if it is considered necessary only as mentioned in section 102(5)(c). For the purposes of subsection (4)(a), there cannot be exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise or require interference with equipment for the purpose of obtaining, or the selection for examination of, items subject to legal privilege unless— in the case of a warrant considered necessary for the purposes of preventing or detecting serious crime or as mentioned in section 106(3)(a), obtaining the information is necessary for the purpose of preventing death or significant injury. an application is made for a warrant under this Part, the applicant considers that the relevant material is likely to include items subject to legal privilege, and a statement that the applicant considers that the relevant material is likely to include items subject to legal privilege, and an assessment of how likely it is that the relevant material will include such items. The person to whom the application is made may issue the warrant only if the person considers that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 129 or (as the case may be) section 191 include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of items subject to legal privilege. In this section, “relevant material” means— in relation to a targeted equipment interference warrant, any material the obtaining of which is authorised or required under the warrant; in relation to a targeted examination warrant, any protected material which the warrant authorises to be selected for examination. in the case of a targeted equipment interference warrant, to authorise or require interference with equipment for the purpose of obtaining communications or other items of information that, if they were not communications made or (as the case may be) other items of information created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose, would be items subject to legal privilege, or in the case of a targeted examination warrant, to authorise the selection of such communications or other items of information for examination, and the applicant considers that the communications or the other items of information (“the targeted communications or other items of information”) are likely to be communications made or (as the case may be) other items of information created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. contain a statement that the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is— to authorise or require interference with equipment for the purpose of obtaining communications or other items of information that, if they were not communications made or (as the case may be) other items of information created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose, would be items subject to legal privilege, or (in the case of a targeted examination warrant) to authorise the selection of such communications or other items of information for examination, and set out the reasons for believing that the targeted communications or other items of information are likely to be communications made or (as the case may be) other items of information created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. The person to whom the application is made may issue the warrant only if the person considers that the targeted communications or other items of information are likely to be communications made or (as the case may be) other items of information created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. This section applies if an application is made for a warrant under this Part and the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant— in the case of a targeted equipment interference warrant, to authorise or require interference with equipment for the purpose of obtaining communications or other items of information which the applicant for the warrant believes will be communications or other items of information containing confidential journalistic material, or in the case of a targeted examination warrant, to authorise the selection for examination of journalistic material which the applicant for the warrant believes is confidential journalistic material. The person to whom the application is made may issue the warrant only if the person considers that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 129 or (as the case may be) section 191 (safeguards relating to retention and disclosure of material) include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of communications or other items of information containing confidential journalistic material. This section applies if an application is made for a warrant under this Part and the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is to identify or confirm a source of journalistic information. The person to whom the application is made may issue the warrant only if the person considers that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 129 or (as the case may be) section 191 (safeguards relating to retention and disclosure of material) include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of communications or other items of information that identify sources of journalistic information. A warrant under this Part must contain a provision stating whether it is a targeted equipment interference warrant or a targeted examination warrant. A warrant under this Part must be addressed— in the case of a warrant issued under section 102 or 103, to the head of the intelligence service by whom or on whose behalf the application for the warrant was made; in the case of a warrant issued under section 104, to the Chief of Defence Intelligence; in the case of a warrant issued under section 106 by a law enforcement chief (or by an appropriate delegate in relation to a law enforcement chief), to a person who— is an appropriate law enforcement officer in relation to the law enforcement chief, and is named or described in the warrant. In the case of a targeted equipment interference warrant which relates to a matter described in the first column of the Table below, the warrant must include the details specified in the second column. A targeted equipment interference warrant must also describe— the type of equipment which is to be interfered with, and the conduct which the person to whom the warrant is addressed is authorised to take. In the case of a targeted examination warrant which relates to a matter described in the first column of the Table below, the warrant must include the details specified in the second column. A warrant issued under this Part ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period (see subsection (2)), unless— it is renewed before the end of that period (see section 117), or it is cancelled or otherwise ceases to have effect before the end of that period (see sections 109 and 125). In this section, “the relevant period”— in the case of a warrant which has been renewed, the day after the day at the end of which the warrant would have ceased to have effect if it had not been renewed. For the purposes of subsection (2)(a), a warrant is an “urgent warrant” if— If the renewal conditions are met, a warrant issued under this Part may be renewed, at any time during the renewal period, by an instrument issued by the appropriate person (see subsection (3)). that the appropriate person considers that the warrant continues to be necessary on any relevant grounds, that, in the case of a targeted examination warrant, the appropriate person considers that the warrant continues to be necessary to authorise the selection of protected material for examination in breach of the prohibition in section 193(4), and in the case of a warrant issued under section 102 or 104, the Secretary of State; in the case of a warrant issued under section 103, a member of the Scottish Government; in the case of a warrant issued under section 106 by a law enforcement chief or by an appropriate delegate in relation to the law enforcement chief, either— the law enforcement chief, or if the warrant was issued by an appropriate delegate, that person. In subsection (2)(a), “relevant grounds” means— in the case of a warrant issued under section 102, grounds falling within section 102(5), in the case of a warrant issued under section 103, the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime, in the case of a warrant issued under section 104, the interests of national security, in the case of a warrant issued under section 106(1), the purpose mentioned in section 106(1)(a), or in the case of a warrant issued under section 106(3), the purpose mentioned in section 106(3)(a). The decision to renew a warrant issued under section 102 or 104 must be taken personally by the Secretary of State, and the instrument renewing the warrant must be signed by the Secretary of State. The decision to renew a warrant issued under section 103 must be taken personally by a member of the Scottish Government, and the instrument renewing the warrant must be signed by the person who took that decision. The instrument renewing a warrant issued under section 106 must be signed by the person who renews it. Section 108 (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioners) applies in relation to a decision to renew a warrant under this Part as it applies in relation to a decision to issue such a warrant (and accordingly any reference in that section to the person who decided to issue the warrant is to be read as a reference to the person who decided to renew it). Sections 111 to 114 (additional safeguards) apply in relation to a decision to renew a warrant under this Part as they apply in relation to a decision to issue such a warrant. “relevant period” has the same meaning as in section 116; The provisions of a warrant issued under section 102, 103 or 104 may be modified at any time by an instrument issued by the person making the modification. The only modifications which may be made under this section are— adding to the matters to which the warrant relates (see section 101(1) and (2)), by including the details required in relation to that matter by section 115(3) or (5); removing a matter to which the warrant relates; adding (in relation to a matter to which the warrant relates) a name or description to the names or descriptions included in the warrant in accordance with section 115(3) or (5); varying or removing (in relation to a matter to which the warrant relates) a name or description included in the warrant in accordance with section 115(3) or (5); adding to the descriptions of types of equipment included in the warrant in accordance with section 115(4)(a); varying or removing a description of a type of equipment included in the warrant in accordance with section 115(4)(a). But— where a targeted equipment interference warrant relates only to a matter specified in section 101(1)(a), only to a matter specified in section 101(1)(d), or only to both such matters, the details included in the warrant in accordance with section 115(3) may not be modified; where a targeted examination warrant relates only to a matter specified in section 101(2)(a), the details included in the warrant in accordance with section 115(5) may not be modified. This is subject to section 120(7). Sections 119 to 122 contain further provision about making modifications under this section. The persons who may make modifications under section 118 of a warrant are (subject to subsection (2))— in the case of a warrant issued by the Secretary of State under section 102 or 104— a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State; in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers under section 103— a member of the Scottish Government, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Scottish Ministers. Any of the following persons may also make modifications under section 118 of a warrant, but only where the person considers that there is an urgent need to make the modification— the person to whom the warrant is addressed; a person who holds a senior position in the same public authority as the person mentioned in paragraph (a). Section 122 contains provision about the approval of modifications made in urgent cases. Subsection (2) is subject to section 120(4) and (5) (special rules where any of sections 111 to 114 applies in relation to the making of a modification under section 118). For the purposes of subsection (2)(b), a person holds a senior position in a public authority if— A modification, other than a modification removing any matter, name or description, may be made under section 118 only if the person making the modification considers— that the modification is necessary on any relevant grounds (see subsection (2)), and in the case of a warrant issued under section 102, grounds falling within section 102(5); in the case of a warrant issued under section 103, the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime; in the case of a warrant issued under section 104, the interests of national security. Sections 111 to 114 (additional safeguards) apply in relation to the making of a modification to a warrant under section 118, other than a modification removing any matter, name or description, as they apply in relation to the issuing of a warrant. Where section 111 applies in relation to the making of a modification— Where section 112, 113 or 114 applies in relation to the making of a modification— the modification must be made by — In a case where any of sections 111 to 114 applies in relation to the making of a modification, section 108 (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioners) applies in relation to the decision to make the modification as it applies in relation to a decision to issue a warrant, but as if— the references in subsection (1)(a) and (b) of that section to the warrant were references to the modification, and any reference to the person who decided to issue the warrant were a reference to the person who decided to make the modification. If, in a case where any of sections 111 to 114 applies in relation to the making of a modification, it is not reasonably practicable for the instrument making the modification to be signed by the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) a member of the Scottish Government in accordance with section 118(4), the instrument may be signed by a senior official designated by the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the Scottish Ministers for that purpose. As soon as is reasonably practicable after a person makes a modification of a warrant under section 118, a Judicial Commissioner must be notified of the modification and the reasons for making it. the modification is to remove any matter, name or description included in the warrant in accordance with section 115(3) to (5), the modification is made by virtue of section 119(2), or any of sections 111 to 114 applies in relation to the making of the modification. Where a modification is made by a senior official in accordance with section 119(1) or section 120(5)(a)(ii), the Secretary of State or (in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers) a member of the Scottish Government must be notified personally of the modification and the reasons for making it. But subsection (3) does not apply where the modification— is made in accordance with section 119(1), and is to remove any matter, name or description included in the warrant in accordance with section 115(3) to (5). This section applies where a person makes a modification of a warrant by virtue of section 119(2). section 112, 113 or 114 applies in relation to the making of a modification under section 118, in a case falling within subsection (2), a Judicial Commissioner; “designated senior official” means a senior official who has been designated by the Secretary of State or (in the case of warrants issued by the Scottish Ministers) the Scottish Ministers for the purposes of this section. the person to whom the warrant is addressed must, so far as is reasonably practicable, secure that anything in the process of being done under the warrant by virtue of that modification stops as soon as possible; and, in a case falling within subsection (2) above, section 108(5) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. In a case where the appropriate person refuses to approve a decision to make a modification of a targeted equipment interference warrant, the appropriate person may authorise further interference with equipment for the purpose of enabling the person to whom the warrant is addressed to secure that anything in the process of being done under the warrant by virtue of the modification stops as soon as possible. If the appropriate person authorises further interference with equipment under subsection (8), the Secretary of State or (in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers) a member of the Scottish Government must be notified personally of the authorisation. The provisions of a warrant issued under section 106 by a law enforcement chief, or by an appropriate delegate in relation to that chief, may be modified at any time— by the law enforcement chief, or if the warrant was issued by an appropriate delegate, by that person. But where a warrant relates only to a matter specified in section 101(1)(a), only to a matter specified in section 101(1)(d), or only to both such matters, the details included in the warrant in accordance with section 115(3) may not be modified. A modification may be made only if— except in the case of a modification removing any matter, name or description, the person making the modification considers that— the modification is necessary on any relevant grounds (see subsection (5)), and the conduct authorised by the modification is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, and except where the person making the modification considers that there is an urgent need to make it, the decision to make the modification has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. In subsection (4)(a), “relevant grounds” means— in the case of a warrant issued under section 106(1), the purpose mentioned in section 106(1)(a); The decision to make any modification must be taken personally by the person making the modification, and the instrument making the modification must be signed by that person. Section 108 (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioners) applies in relation to a decision to make a modification of a warrant issued under section 106 as it applies in relation to a decision to issue such a warrant, but as if— Sections 111 to 114 (additional safeguards) apply in relation to the making of a modification to a warrant under this section, other than a modification removing any matter, name or description, as they apply in relation to the issuing of a warrant. In the application of section 111 in accordance with subsection (8), subsection (5) is to be read as if for the words from “unless” to the end of the subsection there were substituted “ unless the law enforcement chief believes that the warrant (as modified) would authorise interference only with equipment which would be in Scotland at the time of the making of the modification or which the law enforcement chief believes would be in Scotland at that time ”. Where section 111 applies in relation to the making of a modification to a warrant under this section, subsection (4)(b) of this section has effect in relation to the making of the modification as if the words “except where the person making the modification considers that there is an urgent need to make it” were omitted. a modification is made under section 123 without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and the person who made the modification considered that there was an urgent need to make it. The person who made the modification must inform a Judicial Commissioner that it has been made. If the Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to make the modification— the person who issued the warrant must be notified of the refusal, In a case where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to make a modification of a targeted equipment interference warrant, the Judicial Commissioner may authorise further interference with equipment for the purpose of enabling the person to whom the warrant is addressed to secure that anything in the process of being done under the warrant by virtue of the modification stops as soon as possible. If the Judicial Commissioner authorises further interference with equipment under subsection (5), the person who issued the warrant must be informed of the authorisation. Any of the appropriate persons may cancel a warrant issued under this Part at any time. a warrant issued under this Part is no longer necessary on any relevant grounds, or the conduct authorised by a warrant issued under this Part is no longer proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by the conduct, in the case of a warrant issued under section 104, the interests of national security; For the purposes of this section, “the appropriate persons” are— in the case of a warrant issued by the Secretary of State under section 102 or 104, the Secretary of State or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State; in the case of a warrant issued by the Scottish Ministers under section 103, a member of the Scottish Government or a senior official acting on behalf of the Scottish Ministers; In giving effect to a targeted equipment interference warrant, the person to whom it is addressed (“the implementing authority”) may (in addition to acting alone) act through, or together with, such other persons as the implementing authority may require (whether under subsection (2) or otherwise) to provide the authority with assistance in giving effect to the warrant. For the purpose of requiring any person to provide assistance in relation to a targeted equipment interference warrant, the implementing authority may— serve a copy of the warrant on any person whom the implementing authority considers may be able to provide such assistance, or A copy of a warrant may be served under subsection (2) on a person outside the United Kingdom for the purpose of requiring the person to provide such assistance in the form of conduct outside the United Kingdom. For the purposes of this Act, the provision of assistance in giving effect to a targeted equipment interference warrant includes any disclosure to the implementing authority, or to persons acting on that person's behalf, of material obtained under the warrant. The references in subsections (2) and (3) and sections 127 and 128 to the service of a copy of a warrant include— the service of a copy of the warrant with the omission of any schedule contained in it. This section applies to the service of warrants under section 126(2). A copy of the warrant must be served in such a way as to bring the contents of the warrant to the attention of the person who the implementing authority considers may be able to provide assistance in relation to it. the implementing authority takes such steps as it considers appropriate for the purpose of bringing the contents of the warrant, and the availability of a copy for inspection, to the attention of the person. In this section, “the implementing authority” has the same meaning as in section 126. A telecommunications operator that has been served with a copy of a targeted equipment interference warrant issued by the Secretary of State under section 102 or 104, or by the Scottish Ministers under section 103, must take all steps for giving effect to the warrant which are notified to the telecommunications operator by or on behalf of the person to whom the warrant is addressed. A telecommunications operator that has been served with a copy of a targeted equipment interference warrant issued under section 106 and addressed to a law enforcement officer mentioned in subsection (3) must take all steps for giving effect to the warrant which— were approved by the Secretary of State or, in the case of a warrant addressed to a constable of the Police Service of Scotland, by the Scottish Ministers, before the warrant was served, and are notified to the telecommunications operator by or on behalf of the law enforcement officer. The law enforcement officers mentioned in this subsection are— a National Crime Agency officer; an officer of Revenue and Customs; a constable of the Police Service of Scotland; a member of the Police Service of Northern Ireland; a member of the metropolitan police force. The Secretary of State or the Scottish Ministers may give approval for the purposes of subsection (2)(a) if the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the Scottish Ministers consider that— it is necessary for the telecommunications operator to be required to take the steps, and the steps are proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by them. A telecommunications operator is not required to take any steps which it is not reasonably practicable for the telecommunications operator to take. Where obligations have been imposed on a telecommunications operator (“P”) under section 253 (technical capability notices), for the purposes of subsection (5) the steps which it is reasonably practicable for P to take include every step which it would have been reasonably practicable for P to take if P had complied with all of those obligations. The duty imposed by subsection (1) or (2) is enforceable against a person in the United Kingdom by civil proceedings by the Secretary of State for an injunction, or for specific performance of a statutory duty under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988, or for any other appropriate relief. The issuing authority must ensure, in relation to every targeted equipment interference warrant issued by that authority, that arrangements are in force for securing that the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) are met in relation to the material obtained under the warrant. This is subject to subsection (10). For the purposes of subsection (2), something is necessary for the authorised purposes if, and only if— it is, or is likely to become, necessary on any relevant grounds (see subsection (7)), it is necessary for facilitating the carrying out of any functions of the Judicial Commissioners or of the Investigatory Powers Tribunal under or in relation to this Act, it is necessary for the purpose of legal proceedings, or it is necessary for the performance of the functions of any person under any enactment. The requirements of this subsection are met in relation to the material obtained under a warrant if every copy made of any of that material (if not destroyed earlier) is destroyed as soon as there are no longer any grounds for retaining it (see subsection (6)). For the purposes of subsection (5), there are no longer any grounds for retaining a copy of any material if, and only if— its retention is not necessary, or not likely to become necessary, on any relevant grounds (see subsection (7)), and In subsections (3) and (6), “relevant grounds” means— in relation to a warrant issued under section 102, grounds falling within section 102(5); in relation to a warrant issued under section 103, the purpose of preventing or detecting serious crime; in relation to a warrant issued under section 104, the interests of national security; material obtained under a targeted equipment interference warrant is retained, following its examination, for purposes other than the destruction of the material, and it is material that contains confidential journalistic material or identifies a source of journalistic material, Subsection (10) applies if— To the extent that the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) relate to any of the material mentioned in subsection (9)(a), or to the copy mentioned in subsection (9)(b), the arrangements made for the purpose of this section are not required to secure that those requirements are met (see instead section 130). any record which is a record of the identities of persons who owned, used or were in possession of the equipment which was interfered with to obtain that material, in the case of a warrant issued under section 103, the Scottish Ministers; in the case of a warrant issued under section 106, the law enforcement chief who issued the warrant (or on whose behalf it was issued);

The issuing authority must ensure, in relation to every targeted equipment interference warrant, that arrangements are in force for securing that— The requirements of this subsection are met in the case of a warrant if it appears to the issuing authority that requirements corresponding to the requirements of section 129(2) and (5) will apply, to such extent (if any) as the issuing authority considers appropriate, in relation to any of the material which is handed over, or any copy of which is given, to the authorities in question. “copy” has the same meaning as in section 129; “issuing authority” also has the same meaning as in that section; This section applies where an item subject to legal privilege which has been obtained under a targeted equipment interference warrant is retained, following its examination, for purposes other than the destruction of the item. the issuing authority (within the meaning given by section 129(11)); the person discloses any of the matters within subsection (4) in relation to a warrant under this Part, and the disclosure is not an excepted disclosure (see section 133). any person who may apply for a warrant under this Part; any person employed by, or for the purposes of, a police force; any telecommunications operator; any person employed or engaged for the purposes of any business of a telecommunications operator; any person to whom any of the matters within subsection (4) have been disclosed in relation to a warrant under this Part. any of the material obtained under the warrant in a form which identifies it as having been obtained under a warrant under this Part. For the purposes of section 132, a disclosure made in relation to a warrant is an excepted disclosure if it falls within any of the Heads set out in— subsection (2) (disclosures authorised by warrant etc.); subsection (3) (oversight bodies); subsection (4) (legal proceedings); subsection (6) (disclosures of a general nature). a disclosure authorised by the terms of any requirement to provide assistance in giving effect to the warrant (including any requirement for disclosure imposed by virtue of section 126(4)). a disclosure made to, or authorised by, a Judicial Commissioner; a disclosure made to the Director General of the Independent Office for Police Conduct for the purposes of facilitating the carrying out of any of the Director General’s functions; in connection with the giving, by L to L's client, of advice about the effect of the provisions of this Part. a disclosure which— is made by a telecommunications operator in accordance with a requirement imposed by regulations made by the Secretary of State, and a disclosure of information that does not relate to any particular warrant under this Part but relates to such warrants in general. the person discloses any matter in breach of section 132(1), and the person knew that the disclosure was in breach of that section. “communication” includes— anything comprising speech, music, sounds, visual images or data of any description, and signals serving either for the impartation of anything between persons, between a person and a thing or between things or for the actuation or control of any apparatus; “equipment” means equipment producing electromagnetic, acoustic or other emissions or any device capable of being used in connection with such equipment; “equipment data” has the meaning given by section 100; “private information” includes information relating to a person's private or family life; “protected material”, in relation to a targeted examination warrant, has the meaning given by section 99(9); “senior official” means— in the case of a targeted equipment interference warrant which is or may be issued by the Secretary of State or a law enforcement chief, or in the case of a targeted examination warrant which is or may be issued by the Secretary of State, a member of the Senior Civil Service or a member of the Senior Management Structure of Her Majesty's Diplomatic Service; in the case of a targeted equipment interference warrant or a targeted examination warrant which is or may be issued by the Scottish Ministers, a member of the staff of the Scottish Administration who is a member of the Senior Civil Service; “targeted examination warrant” has the meaning given by section 99(9). For the purposes of this Act a “bulk interception warrant” is a warrant issued under this Chapter which meets conditions A and B. Condition A is that the main purpose of the warrant is one or more of the following— the interception of overseas-related communications (see subsection (3)); the obtaining of secondary data from such communications (see section 137). In this Chapter “overseas-related communications” means— communications sent by individuals who are outside the British Islands, or communications received by individuals who are outside the British Islands. Condition B is that the warrant authorises or requires the person to whom it is addressed to secure, by any conduct described in the warrant, any one or more of the following activities— the interception, in the course of their transmission by means of a telecommunication system, of communications described in the warrant; the obtaining of secondary data from communications transmitted by means of such a system and described in the warrant; the selection for examination, in any manner described in the warrant, of intercepted content or secondary data obtained under the warrant; A bulk interception warrant also authorises the following conduct (in addition to the conduct described in the warrant)— conduct by any person which is conduct in pursuance of a requirement imposed by or on behalf of the person to whom the warrant is addressed to be provided with assistance in giving effect to the warrant; any conduct for obtaining related systems data from any telecommunications operator. any communication intercepted in accordance with the warrant in the course of its transmission by means of a telecommunication system, or This section has effect for the purposes of this Chapter. References to obtaining secondary data from a communication transmitted by means of a telecommunication system are references to obtaining such data— at any time when the communication is stored in or by the system (whether before or after its transmission), and references to secondary data obtained under a bulk interception warrant are to be read accordingly. “Secondary data”, in relation to a communication transmitted by means of a telecommunication system, means any data falling within subsection (4) or (5). The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a bulk interception warrant if— the Secretary of State considers that the main purpose of the warrant is one or more of the following— the interception of overseas-related communications, and the obtaining of secondary data from such communications, the Secretary of State considers that the warrant is necessary— in the interests of national security, or on that ground and on any other grounds falling within subsection (2), the Secretary of State considers that— each of the specified operational purposes (see section 142) is a purpose for which the examination of intercepted content or secondary data obtained under the warrant is or may be necessary, and the examination of intercepted content or secondary data for each such purpose is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary, the Secretary of State considers that satisfactory arrangements made for the purposes of sections 150 and 151 (safeguards relating to disclosure etc.) are in force in relation to the warrant, in a case where the Secretary of State considers that a telecommunications operator outside the United Kingdom is likely to be required to provide assistance in giving effect to the warrant if it is issued, the Secretary of State has complied with section 139, and the decision to issue the warrant has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. in the interests of the economic well-being of the United Kingdom so far as those interests are also relevant to the interests of national security (but see subsection (3)). A warrant may be considered necessary on the ground falling within subsection (2)(b) only if the information which it is considered necessary to obtain is information relating to the acts or intentions of persons outside the British Islands. A warrant may not be considered necessary in the interests of national security or on any other grounds falling within subsection (2) if it is considered necessary only for the purpose of gathering evidence for use in any legal proceedings. An application for the issue of a bulk interception warrant may only be made on behalf of the head of an intelligence service by a person holding office under the Crown. an application for a bulk interception warrant has been made, and the Secretary of State considers that a telecommunications operator outside the United Kingdom is likely to be required to provide assistance in giving effect to the warrant if it is issued. Before issuing the warrant, the Secretary of State must consult the operator. Before issuing the warrant, the Secretary of State must, among other matters, take into account— the likely benefits of the warrant, the likely number of users (if known) of any telecommunications service which is provided by the operator and to which the warrant relates, the technical feasibility of complying with any requirement that may be imposed on the operator to provide assistance in giving effect to the warrant, the likely cost of complying with any such requirement, and any other effect of the warrant on the operator. In deciding whether to approve a decision to issue a warrant under section 138, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to the following matters— whether the warrant is necessary as mentioned in subsection (1)(b) of that section, whether the conduct that would be authorised by the warrant is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, whether— the examination of intercepted content or secondary data for each such purpose is necessary as mentioned in section 138(1)(d)(ii), and any matters taken into account in accordance with section 139. Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to issue a warrant under section 138, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to issue a warrant under section 138, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to issue the warrant. The decision to issue a bulk interception warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State. Before a bulk interception warrant is issued, it must be signed by the Secretary of State. A bulk interception warrant must contain a provision stating that it is a bulk interception warrant. A bulk interception warrant must be addressed to the head of the intelligence service by whom, or on whose behalf, the application for the warrant was made. A bulk interception warrant must specify the operational purposes for which any intercepted content or secondary data obtained under the warrant may be selected for examination. The operational purposes specified in the warrant must be ones specified, in a list maintained by the heads of the intelligence services (“the list of operational purposes”), as purposes which they consider are operational purposes for which intercepted content or secondary data obtained under bulk interception warrants may be selected for examination. The warrant may, in particular, specify all of the operational purposes which, at the time the warrant is issued, are specified in the list of operational purposes. An operational purpose may be specified in the list of operational purposes only with the approval of the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may give such approval only if satisfied that the operational purpose is specified in a greater level of detail than the descriptions contained in section 138(1)(b) or (2). At the end of each relevant three-month period the Secretary of State must give a copy of the list of operational purposes to the Intelligence and Security Committee of Parliament. In subsection (8) “relevant three-month period” means— the period of three months beginning with the day on which this section comes into force, and each successive period of three months. The Prime Minister must review the list of operational purposes at least once a year. In this Chapter “the specified operational purposes”, in relation to a bulk interception warrant, means the operational purposes specified in the warrant in accordance with this section. A bulk interception warrant (unless already cancelled) ceases to have effect at the end of the period of 6 months beginning with— For provision about the renewal of warrants, see section 144. If the renewal conditions are met, a bulk interception warrant may be renewed, at any time during the renewal period, by an instrument issued by the Secretary of State. This is subject to subsection (6). that the Secretary of State considers that the warrant continues to be necessary— on that ground and on any other grounds falling within section 138(2), that the Secretary of State considers that the conduct that would be authorised by the renewed warrant continues to be proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, that the Secretary of State considers that— each of the specified operational purposes (see section 142) is a purpose for which the examination of intercepted content or secondary data obtained under the warrant continues to be, or may be, necessary, and the examination of intercepted content or secondary data for each such purpose continues to be necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers that the warrant continues to be necessary, and “The renewal period” means the period of 30 days ending with the day at the end of which the warrant would otherwise cease to have effect. The decision to renew a bulk interception warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State, and the instrument renewing the warrant must be signed by the Secretary of State. Section 140 (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioners) applies in relation to a decision to renew a bulk interception warrant as it applies in relation to a decision to issue a bulk interception warrant, but with the omission of paragraph (d) of subsection (1). In the case of the renewal of a bulk interception warrant that has been modified so that it no longer authorises or requires the interception of communications or the obtaining of secondary data— the renewal condition in subsection (2)(a) is to be disregarded, the reference in subsection (2)(c)(ii) to the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary is to be read as a reference to any grounds falling within section 138(1)(b) or (2), and section 140 has effect as if— paragraph (a) of subsection (1) were omitted, and the reference in subsection (1)(c)(ii) to the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary were a reference to any grounds falling within section 138(1)(b) or (2). The provisions of a bulk interception warrant may be modified at any time by an instrument issued by the person making the modification. adding, varying or removing any operational purpose specified in the warrant as a purpose for which any intercepted content or secondary data obtained under the warrant may be selected for examination, and providing that the warrant no longer authorises or requires (to the extent that it did so previously)— the interception of any communications in the course of their transmission by means of a telecommunication system, or the obtaining of any secondary data from communications transmitted by means of such a system. a modification adding or varying any operational purpose as mentioned in paragraph (a) of subsection (2) is referred to as a “major modification”, and A major modification— must be made by the Secretary of State, and may be made only if the Secretary of State considers that it is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary (see section 138(1)(b)). Except where the Secretary of State considers that there is an urgent need to make the modification, a major modification has effect only if the decision to make the modification is approved by a Judicial Commissioner. a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State. Where a minor modification is made by a senior official, the Secretary of State must be notified personally of the modification and the reasons for making it. If at any time a person mentioned in subsection (6) considers that any operational purpose specified in a warrant is no longer a purpose for which the examination of intercepted content or secondary data obtained under the warrant is or may be necessary, the person must modify the warrant by removing that operational purpose. If it is not reasonably practicable for an instrument making a major modification to be signed by the Secretary of State, the instrument may be signed by a senior official designated by the Secretary of State for that purpose. it is not reasonably practicable for the instrument to be signed by the Secretary of State, and the Secretary of State has personally and expressly authorised the making of the modification. Despite section 136(2), the modification of a bulk interception warrant as mentioned in subsection (2)(b) above does not prevent the warrant from being a bulk interception warrant. In deciding whether to approve a decision to make a major modification of a bulk interception warrant, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to whether the modification is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary. consider the matter referred to in subsection (1) with a sufficient degree of care as to ensure that the Judicial Commissioner complies with the duties imposed by section 2 (general duties in relation to privacy). Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to make a major modification under section 145, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to make a major modification under section 145, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to make the modification. the Secretary of State makes a major modification of a bulk interception warrant without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and the Secretary of State considered that there was an urgent need to make the modification. The Secretary of State must inform a Judicial Commissioner that the modification has been made. notify the Secretary of State of the Judicial Commissioner's decision. and section 146(4) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. The Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, may cancel a bulk interception warrant at any time. If the Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, considers that any of the cancellation conditions are met in relation to a bulk interception warrant, the person must cancel the warrant. The cancellation conditions are— that the warrant is no longer necessary in the interests of national security; that the conduct authorised by the warrant is no longer proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct; that the examination of intercepted content or secondary data obtained under the warrant is no longer necessary for any of the specified operational purposes (see section 142). But the condition in subsection (3)(a) does not apply where the warrant has been modified so that it no longer authorises or requires the interception of communications or the obtaining of secondary data. In giving effect to a bulk interception warrant, the person to whom it is addressed (“the implementing authority”) may (in addition to acting alone) act through, or together with, such other persons as the implementing authority may require (whether under subsection (2) or otherwise) to provide the authority with assistance in giving effect to the warrant. For the purpose of requiring any person to provide assistance in relation to a bulk interception warrant, the implementing authority may— serve a copy of the warrant on any person who the implementing authority considers may be able to provide such assistance, or For the purposes of this Act, the provision of assistance in giving effect to a bulk interception warrant includes any disclosure to the implementing authority, or to persons acting on behalf of the implementing authority, of anything obtained under the warrant. Sections 42 (service of warrants) and 43 (duty of operators to assist with implementation) apply in relation to a bulk interception warrant as they apply in relation to a targeted interception warrant. References in this section (and in sections 42 and 43 as they apply in relation to bulk interception warrants) to the service of a copy of a warrant include— The Secretary of State must ensure, in relation to every bulk interception warrant, that arrangements are in force for securing— that the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) are met in relation to the material obtained under the warrant, and that the requirements of section 152 are met in relation to the intercepted content or secondary data obtained under the warrant. This is subject to subsection (8). For the purposes of subsection (2) something is necessary for the authorised purposes if, and only if— it is, or is likely to become, necessary in the interests of national security or on any other grounds falling within section 138(2), it is necessary for facilitating the carrying out of any functions under this Act of the Secretary of State, the Scottish Ministers or the head of the intelligence service to whom the warrant is or was addressed, its retention is not necessary, or not likely to become necessary, in the interests of national security or on any other grounds falling within section 138(2), and Subsection (8) applies if— To the extent that the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) and section 152 relate to any of the material mentioned in subsection (7)(a), or to the copy mentioned in subsection (7)(b), the arrangements made for the purposes of this section are not required to secure that those requirements are met (see instead section 151). The Secretary of State must ensure, in relation to every bulk interception warrant, that arrangements are in force for securing that— The requirements of this subsection are met in the case of a warrant if it appears to the Secretary of State— that requirements corresponding to the requirements of section 150(2) and (5) and section 152 will apply, to such extent (if any) as the Secretary of State considers appropriate, in relation to any of the material which is handed over, or any copy of which is given, to the authorities in question, and that restrictions are in force which would prevent, to such extent (if any) as the Secretary of State considers appropriate, the doing of anything in, for the purposes of or in connection with any proceedings outside the United Kingdom which would result in a prohibited disclosure. In subsection (2)(b) “prohibited disclosure” means a disclosure which, if made in the United Kingdom, would breach the prohibition in section 56(1) (see section 156). “copy” has the same meaning as in section 150; For the purposes of section 150 the requirements of this section are met in relation to the intercepted content and secondary data obtained under a warrant if— the selection of any of the intercepted content or secondary data for examination is carried out only for the specified purposes (see subsection (2)), the selection of any of the intercepted content or secondary data for examination is necessary and proportionate in all the circumstances, and the selection of any of the intercepted content for examination meets any of the selection conditions (see subsection (3)). The selection of intercepted content or secondary data for examination is carried out only for the specified purposes if the intercepted content or secondary data is selected for examination only so far as is necessary for the operational purposes specified in the warrant in accordance with section 142. In this subsection “specified in the warrant” means specified in the warrant at the time of the selection of the intercepted content or secondary data for examination. The selection conditions referred to in subsection (1)(c) are— that the selection of the intercepted content for examination does not breach the prohibition in subsection (4); that the person to whom the warrant is addressed considers that the selection of the intercepted content for examination would not breach that prohibition; that the selection of the intercepted content for examination in breach of that prohibition is authorised by subsection (5); that the selection of the intercepted content for examination in breach of that prohibition is authorised by a targeted examination warrant issued under Chapter 1 of Part 2. The prohibition referred to in subsection (3)(a) is that intercepted content may not at any time be selected for examination if— any criteria used for the selection of the intercepted content for examination are referable to an individual known to be in the British Islands at that time, and the purpose of using those criteria is to identify the content of communications sent by, or intended for, that individual. It does not matter for the purposes of this subsection whether the identity of the individual is known. The selection of intercepted content (“the relevant content”) for examination is authorised by this subsection if— criteria referable to an individual have been, or are being, used for the selection of intercepted content for examination in circumstances falling within subsection (3)(a) or (b), at any time it appears to the person to whom the warrant is addressed that there has been a relevant change of circumstances in relation to the individual (see subsection (6)) which would mean that the selection of the relevant content for examination would breach the prohibition in subsection (4), since that time, a written authorisation to examine the relevant content using those criteria has been given by a senior officer, and the selection of the relevant content for examination is made before the end of the permitted period (see subsection (7)). For the purposes of subsection (5)(b) there is a relevant change of circumstances in relation to an individual if— the individual has entered the British Islands, or a belief by the person to whom the warrant is addressed that the individual was outside the British Islands was in fact mistaken. In subsection (5)— “senior officer”, in relation to a warrant addressed to the head of an intelligence service, means a member of the intelligence service who— is a member of the Senior Civil Service or a member of the Senior Management Structure of Her Majesty's Diplomatic Service, or holds a position in the intelligence service of equivalent seniority to such a member; “the permitted period” means the period ending with the fifth working day after the time mentioned in subsection (5)(b). In a case where the selection of intercepted content for examination is authorised by subsection (5), the person to whom the warrant is addressed must notify the Secretary of State that the selection is being carried out. Subsection (2) applies if, in a case where intercepted content obtained under a bulk interception warrant is to be selected for examination— the selection of the intercepted content for examination meets any of the selection conditions in section 152(3)(a) to (c), and the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using the criteria to be used for the selection of the intercepted content for examination (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify any items subject to legal privilege, or the use of the relevant criteria is likely to identify such items. The intercepted content may be selected for examination using the relevant criteria only if a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State has approved the use of those criteria. In deciding whether to give an approval under subsection (2) in a case where subsection (1)(b)(i) applies, a senior official must have regard to the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege. A senior official may give an approval under subsection (2) only if— the official considers that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 150 (safeguards relating to retention and disclosure of material) include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of items subject to legal privilege, and where subsection (1)(b)(i) applies, the official considers that there are exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise the use of the relevant criteria. For the purposes of subsection (4)(b), there cannot be exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise the use of the relevant criteria unless— the public interest in obtaining the information that would be obtained by the selection of the intercepted content for examination outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege, obtaining the information is necessary in the interests of national security or for the purpose of preventing death or significant injury. Subsection (7) applies if, in a case where intercepted content obtained under a bulk interception warrant is to be selected for examination— the selection of the intercepted content for examination meets any of the selection conditions in section 152(3)(a) to (c), the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using the criteria to be used for the selection of the intercepted content for examination (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify communications that, if they were not made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose, would be items subject to legal privilege, and the person to whom the warrant is addressed considers that the communications (“the targeted communications”) are likely to be communications made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. A senior official may give an approval under subsection (7) only if the official considers that the targeted communications are likely to be communications made with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. Where an item subject to legal privilege which has been intercepted in accordance with a bulk interception warrant is retained following its examination, for purposes other than the destruction of the item, the person to whom the warrant is addressed must inform the Investigatory Powers Commissioner as soon as is reasonably practicable. (For provision about the grounds for retaining material obtained under a warrant, see section 150.) Unless the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers that subsection (12) applies to the item, the Commissioner must— If the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers that subsection (12) applies to the item, the Commissioner may nevertheless impose such conditions under subsection (10)(b) as the Commissioner considers necessary for the purpose of protecting the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege. may require an affected party to make representations about how the Commissioner should exercise any function under subsection (10), and Each of the following is an “affected party” for the purposes of subsection (13)— the Secretary of State; Subsection (2) applies if, in a case where intercepted content or secondary data obtained under a bulk interception warrant is to be selected for examination— the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using those criteria to be used for the selection of the intercepted content or secondary data for examination (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify any confidential journalistic material or to identify or confirm a source of journalistic information, or the use of the relevant criteria is highly likely to identify such material or identify or confirm such a source. The intercepted content or secondary data may be selected for examination using the relevant criteria only if the use of those criteria has been approved by— the Investigatory Powers Commissioner; or in a case where a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State considers there is an urgent need to do so, the senior official. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner or a senior official may give an approval under subsection (2) only if the Commissioner or official considers that— the public interest in obtaining the information that would be obtained by the selection of the intercepted content or secondary data for examination outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of confidential journalistic material or sources of journalistic information, and there are no less intrusive means by which the information may reasonably be obtained. intercepted content or secondary data obtained under a bulk interception warrant (“the relevant material”) is retained, following its examination, for purposes other than the destruction of the relevant material, and the person to whom the warrant is addressed considers that the relevant material contains confidential journalistic material or material that would identify or confirm a source of journalistic information. The person to whom the warrant is addressed must inform the Investigatory Powers Commissioner of the retention of the relevant material as soon as reasonably practicable. Unless the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers that subsection (8) applies to the relevant material, the Commissioner must direct that the relevant material is destroyed. If the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers that subsection (8) applies to the relevant material, the Commissioner may impose such conditions as to the use or retention of the relevant material as the Commissioner considers necessary for the purpose of protecting the public interest in the confidentiality of confidential journalistic material or sources of journalistic information. This subsection applies to material containing— confidential journalistic material, or material identifying or confirming a source of journalistic information, if the public interest in retaining the material outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of confidential journalistic material or sources of journalistic information. may require an affected party to make representations about how the Commissioner should exercise any function under subsections (6) and (7), and “Affected party” has the meaning given by section 153(14). This section applies where intercepted content or secondary data is selected for examination using criteria the use of which was approved by a senior official under section 154(2). The Secretary of State must, as soon as reasonably practicable, inform the Investigatory Powers Commissioner that the approval has been given. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must, as soon as reasonably practicable— consider whether the relevant condition is met as regards the use of the criteria for the selection of the intercepted content or secondary data for examination, and notify the Secretary of State of their decision. For this purpose, “the relevant condition” is that— On the giving of a notification of a decision that the relevant condition is not met, the senior official’s approval ceases to have effect. Nothing in subsection (5) affects the lawfulness of— anything done by virtue of the approval before it ceases to have effect, or if anything is in the process of being done by virtue of the approval when it ceases to have effect— the person selects for examination any intercepted content or secondary data obtained under a bulk interception warrant, the person knows or believes that the selection of that intercepted content or secondary data for examination does not comply with a requirement imposed by section 152 or 153, and the person deliberately selects that intercepted content or secondary data for examination in breach of that requirement. Section 56 and Schedule 3 (exclusion of matters from legal proceedings etc.) apply in relation to bulk interception warrants as they apply in relation to targeted interception warrants. Sections 57 to 59 (duty not to make unauthorised disclosures) apply in relation to bulk interception warrants as they apply in relation to targeted interception warrants, but as if the reference in section 58(2)(c) to a requirement for disclosure imposed by virtue of section 41(5) were a reference to such a requirement imposed by virtue of section 149(4). “intercepted content”, in relation to a bulk interception warrant, means any content of communications intercepted by an interception authorised or required by the warrant; “overseas-related communications” has the meaning given by section 136; “secondary data” has the meaning given by section 137, and references to obtaining secondary data from a communication are to be read in accordance with that section; “senior official” means a member of the Senior Civil Service or a member of the Senior Management Structure of Her Majesty's Diplomatic Service; “the specified operational purposes” has the meaning given by section 142(11). The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a bulk acquisition warrant if— each of the specified operational purposes (see section 161) is a purpose for which the examination of communications data obtained under the warrant is or may be necessary, and the examination of such data for each such purpose is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary, the Secretary of State considers that satisfactory arrangements made for the purposes of section 171 (safeguards relating to the retention and disclosure of data) are in force in relation to the warrant, and A warrant may be considered necessary on the ground falling within subsection (2)(b) only if the communications data which it is considered necessary to obtain is communications data relating to the acts or intentions of persons outside the British Islands. The fact that the communications data which would be obtained under a warrant relates to the activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the warrant is necessary in the interests of national security or on that ground and a ground falling within subsection (2). A bulk acquisition warrant is a warrant which authorises or requires the person to whom it is addressed to secure, by any conduct described in the warrant, any one or more of the activities in subsection (6). The activities are— requiring a telecommunications operator specified in the warrant— to disclose to a person specified in the warrant any communications data which is specified in the warrant and is in the possession of the operator, to obtain any communications data specified in the warrant which is not in the possession of the operator but which the operator is capable of obtaining, or to disclose to a person specified in the warrant any data obtained as mentioned in sub-paragraph (ii), the selection for examination, in any manner described in the warrant, of communications data obtained under the warrant, the disclosure, in any manner described in the warrant, of communications data obtained under the warrant to the person to whom the warrant is addressed or to any person acting on that person's behalf. A bulk acquisition warrant also authorises the following conduct (in addition to the conduct described in the warrant)— any conduct which it is necessary to undertake in order to do what is expressly authorised or required by the warrant, and conduct by any person which is conduct in pursuance of a requirement imposed by or on behalf of the person to whom the warrant is addressed to be provided with assistance in giving effect to the warrant. A bulk acquisition warrant may relate to data whether or not in existence at the time of the issuing of the warrant. An application for the issue of a bulk acquisition warrant may only be made on behalf of the head of an intelligence service by a person holding office under the Crown. In deciding whether to approve a decision to issue a warrant under section 158, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to the following matters— whether the warrant is necessary as mentioned in subsection (1)(a) of that section, whether the conduct that would be authorised by the warrant is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, and the examination of such data for each such purpose is necessary as mentioned in section 158(1)(c)(ii). Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to issue a warrant under section 158, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to issue a warrant under section 158, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to issue the warrant. The decision to issue a bulk acquisition warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State. Before a bulk acquisition warrant is issued, it must be signed by the Secretary of State. A bulk acquisition warrant must contain a provision stating that it is a bulk acquisition warrant. A bulk acquisition warrant must be addressed to the head of the intelligence service by whom, or on whose behalf, the application for the warrant was made. A bulk acquisition warrant must specify the operational purposes for which any communications data obtained under the warrant may be selected for examination. The operational purposes specified in the warrant must be ones specified, in a list maintained by the heads of the intelligence services (“the list of operational purposes”), as purposes which they consider are operational purposes for which communications data obtained under bulk acquisition warrants may be selected for examination. The Secretary of State may give such approval only if satisfied that the operational purpose is specified in a greater level of detail than the descriptions contained in section 158(1)(a) or (2). In this Chapter “the specified operational purposes”, in relation to a bulk acquisition warrant, means the operational purposes specified in the warrant in accordance with this section. A bulk acquisition warrant (unless already cancelled) ceases to have effect at the end of the period of 6 months beginning with— For provision about the renewal of warrants, see section 163. If the renewal conditions are met, a bulk acquisition warrant may be renewed, at any time during the renewal period, by an instrument issued by the Secretary of State. on that ground and on any other grounds falling within section 158(2), each of the specified operational purposes (see section 161) is a purpose for which the examination of communications data obtained under the warrant continues to be, or may be, necessary, and the examination of such data for each such purpose continues to be necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers that the warrant continues to be necessary, and The decision to renew a bulk acquisition warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State, and the instrument renewing the warrant must be signed by the Secretary of State. Section 159 (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioners) applies in relation to a decision to renew a bulk acquisition warrant as it applies in relation to a decision to issue a bulk acquisition warrant. In the case of the renewal of a bulk acquisition warrant that has been modified so that it no longer authorises or requires the carrying out of activities falling within section 158(6)(a)— the reference in subsection (2)(c)(ii) to the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary is to be read as a reference to any grounds falling within section 158(1)(a) or (2), and section 159 has effect as if— the reference in subsection (1)(c)(ii) to the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary were a reference to any grounds falling within section 158(1)(a) or (2). The provisions of a bulk acquisition warrant may be modified at any time by an instrument issued by the person making the modification. adding, varying or removing any operational purpose specified in the warrant as a purpose for which any communications data obtained under the warrant may be selected for examination, and providing that the warrant no longer authorises or requires the carrying out of activities falling within section 158(6)(a). may be made only if the Secretary of State considers that it is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary (see section 158(1)(a)). If at any time a person mentioned in subsection (6) considers that any operational purpose specified in a warrant is no longer a purpose for which the examination of communications data obtained under the warrant is or may be necessary, the person must modify the warrant by removing that operational purpose. In deciding whether to approve a decision to make a major modification of a bulk acquisition warrant, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to whether the modification is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary. Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to make a major modification under section 164, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to make a major modification under section 164, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to make the modification. the Secretary of State makes a major modification of a bulk acquisition warrant without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and and section 165(4) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. anything done under the warrant by virtue of the modification before the modification ceases to have effect, The Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, may cancel a bulk acquisition warrant at any time. If the Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, considers that any of the cancellation conditions are met in relation to a bulk acquisition warrant, the person must cancel the warrant.

that the warrant is no longer necessary in the interests of national security, that the conduct authorised by the warrant is no longer proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, that the examination of communications data obtained under the warrant is no longer necessary for any of the specified operational purposes (see section 161). But the condition in subsection (3)(a) does not apply where the warrant has been modified so that it no longer authorises or requires the carrying out of activities falling within section 158(6)(a). In giving effect to a bulk acquisition warrant, the person to whom it is addressed (“the implementing authority”) may (in addition to acting alone) act through, or together with, such other persons as the implementing authority may require (whether under subsection (2) or otherwise) to provide the authority with assistance in giving effect to the warrant. For the purpose of requiring any person to provide assistance in relation to a bulk acquisition warrant, the implementing authority may— For the purposes of this Act, the provision of assistance in giving effect to a bulk acquisition warrant includes any disclosure to the implementing authority, or to persons acting on behalf of the implementing authority, of communications data as authorised or required under the warrant. References in this section and in sections 169 and 170 to the service of a copy of a warrant include— This section applies to the service of bulk acquisition warrants under section 168(2). A copy of the warrant must be served in such a way as to bring the contents of the warrant to the attention of the person whom the implementing authority considers may be able to provide assistance in relation to it. the implementing authority takes such steps as the authority considers appropriate for the purpose of bringing the contents of the warrant, and the availability of a copy for inspection, to the attention of the person. In this section “the implementing authority” has the same meaning as in section 168. A telecommunications operator that has been served with a copy of a bulk acquisition warrant by (or on behalf of) the implementing authority must take all steps for giving effect to the warrant that are notified to the operator by (or on behalf of) the implementing authority. This is subject to subsection (3). Subsection (1) applies whether or not the operator is in the United Kingdom. The operator is not required to take any steps which it is not reasonably practicable for the operator to take. Where obligations have been imposed on a telecommunications operator (“P”) under section 253 (technical capability notices), for the purposes of subsection (3) the steps which it is reasonably practicable for P to take include every step which it would have been reasonably practicable for P to take if P had complied with all of those obligations. The duty imposed by subsection (1) is enforceable against a person in the United Kingdom by civil proceedings by the Secretary of State for an injunction, or for specific performance of a statutory duty under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988, or for any other appropriate relief. The Secretary of State must ensure, in relation to every bulk acquisition warrant, that arrangements are in force for securing— that the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) are met in relation to the communications data obtained under the warrant, and that the requirements of section 172 are met in relation to that data. The requirements of this subsection are met in relation to the communications data obtained under a warrant if each of the following is limited to the minimum that is necessary for the authorised purposes (see subsection (3))— the number of persons to whom any of the data is disclosed or otherwise made available, the extent to which any of the data is disclosed or otherwise made available, the extent to which any of the data is copied, it is, or is likely to become, necessary in the interests of national security or on any other grounds falling within section 158(2), it is necessary to ensure that a person (“P”) who is conducting a criminal prosecution has the information P needs to determine what is required of P by P's duty to secure the fairness of the prosecution, it is necessary for use as evidence in legal proceedings, or The arrangements for the time being in force under subsection (1) for securing that the requirements of subsection (2) are met in relation to the communications data obtained under the warrant must include arrangements for securing that every copy made of any of that data is stored, for so long as it is retained, in a secure manner. The requirements of this subsection are met in relation to the communications data obtained under a warrant if every copy made of any of that data (if not destroyed earlier) is destroyed as soon as there are no longer any relevant grounds for retaining it (see subsection (6)). For the purposes of subsection (5), there are no longer any relevant grounds for retaining a copy of any data if, and only if— its retention is not necessary, or not likely to become necessary, in the interests of national security or on any other grounds falling within section 158(2), and its retention is not necessary for any of the purposes mentioned in paragraphs (b) to (f) of subsection (3) above. any communications data obtained under the warrant has been handed over to any overseas authorities, or a copy of any such data has been given to any overseas authorities. To the extent that the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) and section 172 relate to any of the data mentioned in subsection (7)(a), or to the copy mentioned in subsection (7)(b), the arrangements made for the purposes of subsection (1) are not required to secure that those requirements are met. But the Secretary of State must instead ensure that arrangements are in force for securing that communications data obtained under a bulk acquisition warrant, or any copy of such data, is handed over or given to an overseas authority only if the Secretary of State considers that requirements corresponding to the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) and section 172 will apply, to such extent (if any) as the Secretary of State considers appropriate, in relation to such data or copy. “copy”, in relation to communications data obtained under a warrant, means any of the following (whether or not in documentary form)— any copy, extract or summary of the data which identifies the data as having been obtained under the warrant, and any record referring to the obtaining of the data which is a record of the identities of the persons to whom the data relates, and “copied” is to be read accordingly, For the purposes of section 171 the requirements of this section are met in relation to the communications data obtained under a warrant if— any selection of the data for examination is carried out only for the specified purposes (see subsection (2)), and the selection of any of the data for examination is necessary and proportionate in all the circumstances. The selection of communications data for examination is carried out only for the specified purposes if the data is selected for examination only so far as is necessary for the operational purposes specified in the warrant in accordance with section 161. In subsection (2) “specified in the warrant” means specified in the warrant at the time of the selection of the data for examination. the person selects for examination any communications data obtained under a bulk acquisition warrant, the person knows or believes that the selection of that data for examination does not comply with a requirement imposed by section 172, and the person deliberately selects that data for examination in breach of that requirement. It is an offence for— a telecommunications operator who is under a duty by virtue of section 170 to assist in giving effect to a bulk acquisition warrant, or any person employed or engaged for the purposes of the business of such an operator, to disclose to any person, without reasonable excuse, the existence or contents of the warrant. For the purposes of subsection (1), it is, in particular, a reasonable excuse if the disclosure is made with the permission of the Secretary of State. “communications data” does not include communications data within the meaning given by section 262(3), a member of the Senior Civil Service, or a member of the Senior Management Structure of Her Majesty's Diplomatic Service, “the specified operational purposes” has the meaning given by section 161(11). For the purposes of this Act, a warrant is a “bulk equipment interference warrant” if— it is issued under this Chapter; it authorises or requires the person to whom it is addressed to secure interference with any equipment for the purpose of obtaining— communications (see section 198); equipment data (see section 177); any other information; and the main purpose of the warrant is to obtain one or more of the following— overseas-related communications; overseas-related information; overseas-related equipment data. “overseas-related communications” means— communications received by individuals who are outside the British Islands; “overseas-related information” means information of individuals who are outside the British Islands. For the purpose of this Chapter, equipment data is “overseas-related equipment data” if— it forms part of, or is connected with, overseas-related communications or overseas-related information; it would or may assist in establishing the existence of overseas-related communications or overseas-related information or in obtaining such communications or information; it would or may assist in developing capabilities in relation to obtaining overseas-related communications or overseas-related information. A bulk equipment interference warrant— must authorise or require the person to whom it is addressed to secure the obtaining of the communications, equipment data or other information to which the warrant relates; may also authorise or require the person to whom it is addressed to secure— the selection for examination, in any manner described in the warrant, of any material obtained under the warrant by virtue of paragraph (a); the disclosure, in any manner described in the warrant, of any such material to the person to whom the warrant is addressed or to any person acting on that person's behalf. A bulk equipment interference warrant also authorises the following conduct (in addition to the conduct described in the warrant)— A bulk equipment interference warrant may not, by virtue of subsection (4)(a), authorise a person to engage in conduct, in relation to a communication other than a stored communication, which would (unless done with lawful authority) constitute an offence under section 3(1) (unlawful interception). Any conduct which is carried out in accordance with a bulk equipment interference warrant is lawful for all purposes. In this Chapter, “equipment data” means— The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a bulk equipment interference warrant if— the Secretary of State considers that the main purpose of the warrant is to obtain overseas-related communications, overseas-related information or overseas-related equipment data, each of the specified operational purposes (see section 183) is a purpose for which the examination of material obtained under the warrant is or may be necessary, and the examination of such material for each such purpose is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary, the Secretary of State considers that satisfactory arrangements made for the purposes of sections 191 and 192 (safeguards relating to disclosure etc.) are in force in relation to the warrant, and A warrant may be considered necessary on the ground falling within subsection (2)(b) only if the interference with equipment which would be authorised by the warrant is considered necessary for the purpose of obtaining information relating to the acts or intentions of persons outside the British Islands. An application for the issue of a bulk equipment interference warrant may only be made on behalf of the head of an intelligence service by a person holding office under the Crown. In deciding whether to approve a decision to issue a warrant under section 178, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to the following matters— the examination of such material for each such purpose is necessary as mentioned in section 178(1)(d)(ii). Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to issue a warrant under section 178, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to issue a warrant under section 178, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to issue the warrant. a warrant under section 178 is issued without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and the Secretary of State considered that there was an urgent need to issue it. The Secretary of State must inform a Judicial Commissioner that it has been issued. and section 179(4) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. Section 181 contains further provision about what happens if a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to issue a warrant. This section applies where under section 180(3) a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to issue a warrant. direct that any material obtained under the warrant is destroyed; The Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to review a decision made by any other Judicial Commissioner under subsection (3). Nothing in this section or section 180 affects the lawfulness of— The decision to issue a bulk equipment interference warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State. Before a bulk equipment interference warrant is issued, it must be signed by the Secretary of State. If it is not reasonably practicable for a warrant to be signed by the Secretary of State, the warrant may be signed by a senior official designated by the Secretary of State for that purpose. it is not reasonably practicable for the warrant to be signed by the Secretary of State, and the Secretary of State has personally and expressly authorised the issue of the warrant. A bulk equipment interference warrant must contain a provision stating that it is a bulk equipment interference warrant. A bulk equipment interference warrant must be addressed to the head of the intelligence service by whom, or on whose behalf, the application for the warrant was made. A bulk equipment interference warrant must describe the conduct that is authorised by the warrant. A bulk equipment interference warrant must specify the operational purposes for which any material obtained under the warrant may be selected for examination. The operational purposes specified in the warrant must be ones specified, in a list maintained by the heads of the intelligence services (“the list of operational purposes”), as purposes which they consider are operational purposes for which material obtained under bulk equipment interference warrants may be selected for examination. The Secretary of State may give such approval only if satisfied that the operational purpose is specified in a greater level of detail than the descriptions contained in section 178(1)(b) or (2). At the end of each relevant three-month period, the Secretary of State must give a copy of the list of operational purposes to the Intelligence and Security Committee of Parliament. In subsection (9), “relevant three-month period” means— In this Chapter, “the specified operational purposes”, in relation to a bulk equipment interference warrant, means the operational purposes specified in the warrant in accordance with this section. A bulk equipment interference warrant ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period (see subsection (2)), unless— it is renewed before the end of that period (see section 185), or it is cancelled or otherwise ceases to have effect before the end of that period (see sections 180 and 189). in the case of an urgent warrant (see subsection (3)), means the period ending with the fifth working day after the day on which the warrant was issued; If the renewal conditions are met, a bulk equipment interference warrant may be renewed, at any time during the renewal period, by an instrument issued by the Secretary of State. on that ground and on any other grounds falling within section 178(2), each of the specified operational purposes (see section 183) is a purpose for which the examination of material obtained under the warrant continues to be, or may be, necessary, and the examination of such material for each such purpose continues to be necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers that the warrant continues to be necessary, and The decision to renew a bulk equipment interference warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State, and the instrument renewing the warrant must be signed by the Secretary of State. Section 179 (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioners) applies in relation to a decision to renew a bulk equipment interference warrant as it applies in relation to a decision to issue a bulk equipment interference warrant. In the case of a bulk equipment interference warrant which has been modified so that it no longer authorises or requires the securing of interference with any equipment or the obtaining of any communications, equipment data or other information— the reference in subsection (2)(c)(ii) to the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary is to be read as a reference to any grounds falling within section 178(1)(b) or (2), and section 179 has effect as if— the reference in subsection (1)(c)(ii) to the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary were a reference to any grounds falling within section 178(1)(b) or (2). “the relevant period” has the same meaning as in section 184; The provisions of a bulk equipment interference warrant may be modified at any time by an instrument issued by the person making the modification. The modifications which may be made under this section are— adding, varying or removing any operational purpose specified in the warrant as a purpose for which any material obtained under the warrant may be selected for examination, and adding, varying or removing any description of conduct authorised by the warrant. a modification adding or varying any operational purpose, or any description of conduct, as mentioned in subsection (2) is referred to as a “major modification”, and A major modification adding or varying any operational purpose— may be made only if the Secretary of State considers that it is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary (see section 178(1)(b)). A major modification adding or varying any description of conduct— may be made only if the Secretary of State considers— that the modification is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary (see section 178(1)(b)), and If at any time a person mentioned in subsection (7) considers that any operational purpose specified in a warrant is no longer a purpose for which the examination of material obtained under the warrant is or may be necessary, the person must modify the warrant by removing that operational purpose. This is subject to subsection (11). Despite section 176(1)(b) and (4)(a), the modification of a bulk equipment interference warrant so that it no longer authorises or requires the securing of interference with any equipment or the obtaining of any communications, equipment data or other information does not prevent the warrant from being a bulk equipment interference warrant. Nothing in this section applies in relation to modifying the provisions of a warrant in a way which does not affect the conduct authorised by it. In deciding whether to approve a decision to make a major modification of a bulk equipment interference warrant, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to the following matters— whether the modification is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary, and in the case of a major modification adding or varying any description of conduct authorised by the warrant, whether the conduct authorised by the modification is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct. Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to make a major modification under section 186, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to make a major modification under section 186, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to make the modification. the Secretary of State makes a major modification of a bulk equipment interference warrant without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and and section 187(4) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. The Judicial Commissioner may authorise further interference with equipment for the purpose of enabling the person to whom the warrant is addressed to secure that anything in the process of being done under the warrant by virtue of the modification stops as soon as possible. The Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, may cancel a bulk equipment interference warrant at any time. If the Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, considers that any of the cancellation conditions are met in relation to a bulk equipment interference warrant, the person must cancel the warrant. that the examination of material obtained under the warrant is no longer necessary for any of the specified operational purposes (see section 183). But the condition in subsection (3)(a) does not apply where the warrant has been modified so that it no longer authorises or requires the securing of interference with any equipment or the obtaining of any communications, equipment data or other information. In giving effect to a bulk equipment interference warrant, the person to whom it is addressed (“the implementing authority”) may (in addition to acting alone) act through, or together with, such other persons as the implementing authority may require (whether under subsection (2) or otherwise) to provide the authority with assistance in giving effect to the warrant. For the purpose of requiring any person to provide assistance in relation to a bulk equipment interference warrant, the implementing authority may— For the purposes of this Act, the provision of assistance in giving effect to a bulk equipment interference warrant includes any disclosure to the implementing authority, or to persons acting on behalf of the implementing authority, of material obtained under the warrant. Sections 127 (service of warrants) and 128 (duty of telecommunications operators to assist with implementation) apply in relation to a bulk equipment interference warrant as they apply in relation to a targeted equipment interference warrant issued under section 102 by the Secretary of State. References in this section (and in sections 127 and 128 as they apply in relation to bulk equipment interference warrants) to the service of a copy of a warrant include— The Secretary of State must ensure, in relation to every bulk equipment interference warrant, that arrangements are in force for securing— that the requirements of section 193 are met in relation to that material. The requirements of this subsection are met in relation to the material obtained under the warrant if each of the following is limited to the minimum that is necessary for the authorised purposes (see subsection (3))— it is, or is likely to become, necessary in the interests of national security or on any other grounds falling within section 178(2), The requirements of this subsection are met in relation to the material obtained under the warrant if every copy made of any of that material (if not destroyed earlier) is destroyed as soon as there are no longer any relevant grounds for retaining it (see subsection (6)). its retention is not necessary, or not likely to become necessary, in the interests of national security or on any other grounds falling within section 178(2), and To the extent that the requirements of subsections (2) and (5) and section 193 relate to any of the material mentioned in subsection (7)(a), or to the copy mentioned in subsection (7)(b), the arrangements made for the purpose of this section are not required to secure that those requirements are met (see instead section 192). “copy”, in relation to any material obtained under a warrant, means any of the following (whether or not in documentary form)— The Secretary of State must ensure, in relation to every bulk equipment interference warrant, that arrangements are in force for securing that— The requirements of this subsection are met in the case of a warrant if it appears to the Secretary of State that requirements corresponding to the requirements of section 191(2) and (5) and section 193 will apply, to such extent (if any) as the Secretary of State considers appropriate, in relation to any of the material which is handed over, or any copy of which is given, to the authorities in question. “copy” has the same meaning as in section 191; For the purposes of section 191, the requirements of this section are met in relation to the material obtained under a warrant if— the selection of any of the material obtained under the warrant for examination is carried out only for the specified purposes (see subsection (2)), the selection of any of the material for examination is necessary and proportionate in all the circumstances, and where any such material is protected material, the selection of the material for examination meets any of the selection conditions (see subsection (3)). The selection of material obtained under the warrant for examination is carried out only for the specified purposes if the material is selected for examination only so far as is necessary for the operational purposes specified in the warrant in accordance with section 183. In this subsection “specified in the warrant” means specified in the warrant at the time of the selection of the material for examination. that the selection of the protected material for examination does not breach the prohibition in subsection (4); that the person to whom the warrant is addressed reasonably considers that the selection of the protected material for examination would not breach that prohibition; that the selection of the protected material for examination in breach of that prohibition is authorised by subsection (5); that the selection of the protected material for examination in breach of that prohibition is authorised by a targeted examination warrant issued under Part 5. The prohibition referred to in subsection (3)(a) is that the protected material may not at any time be selected for examination if— any criteria used for the selection of the material for examination are referable to an individual known to be in the British Islands at that time, and the purpose of using those criteria is to identify protected material consisting of communications sent by, or intended for, that individual or private information relating to that individual. The selection of protected material (“the relevant material”) for examination is authorised by this subsection if— criteria referable to an individual have been, or are being, used for the selection of material for examination in circumstances falling within subsection (3)(a) or (b), at any time it appears to the person to whom the warrant is addressed that there has been a relevant change of circumstances in relation to the individual (see subsection (6)) which would mean that the selection of the relevant material for examination would breach the prohibition in subsection (4), since that time, a written authorisation to examine the relevant material using those criteria has been given by a senior officer, and the selection of the relevant material for examination is made before the end of the permitted period (see subsection (7)). In a case where the selection of protected material for examination is authorised by subsection (5), the person to whom the warrant is addressed must notify the Secretary of State that the selection is being carried out. In this Part, “protected material” means any material obtained under the warrant other than material which is— Subsection (2) applies if, in a case where protected material obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant is to be selected for examination— the selection of the material for examination meets any of the selection conditions in section 193(3)(a) to (c), and the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using the criteria to be used for the selection of the material for examination (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify any items subject to legal privilege, or The material may be selected for examination using the relevant criteria only if a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State has approved the use of those criteria. the official considers that the arrangements made for the purposes of section 191 (safeguards relating to retention and disclosure of material) include specific arrangements for the handling, retention, use and destruction of items subject to legal privilege, and the public interest in obtaining the information that would be obtained by the selection of the material for examination outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege, Subsection (7) applies if, in a case where protected material obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant is to be selected for examination— the selection of the material for examination meets any of the selection conditions in section 193(3)(a) to (c), the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using the criteria to be used for the selection of the material for examination (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify communications or other items of information that, if they were not communications made or (as the case may be) other items of information created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose, would be items subject to legal privilege, and the person to whom the warrant is addressed considers that the communications or other items of information (“the targeted communications or other items of information”) are likely to be communications made or (as the case may be) other items of information created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. A senior official may give an approval under subsection (7) only if the official considers that the targeted communications or other items of information are likely to be communications made or (as the case may be) other items of information created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. Where an item subject to legal privilege which has been obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant is retained following its examination, for purposes other than the destruction of the item, the person to whom the warrant is addressed must inform the Investigatory Powers Commissioner as soon as is reasonably practicable. (For provision about the grounds for retaining material obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant, see section 191.) Subsection (2) applies if, in a case where material obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant (“BEI material”) is to be selected for examination— the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using those criteria to be used for the selection of the BEI material for examination (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify any confidential journalistic material or to identify or confirm a source of journalistic information, or the use of the relevant criteria is highly likely to identify confidential journalistic material or identify or confirm a source of journalistic information. The BEI material may be selected for examination using the relevant criteria only if the use of those criteria has been approved by— the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, or the public interest in obtaining the information that would be obtained by the selection of the BEI material for examination outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of confidential journalistic material or sources of journalistic information, and material obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant (“the relevant material”) is retained, following its examination, for purposes other than the destruction of the relevant material, and “Affected party” has the meaning given by section 194(14). (For provision about the grounds for retaining material obtained under a warrant, see section 191.) This section applies where material obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant is selected for examination using criteria the use of which was approved by a senior official under section 195(2). consider whether the relevant condition is met as regards the use of the criteria for the selection of the material for examination, and the public interest in obtaining the information that would be obtained by the selection of the material for examination outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of confidential journalistic material or sources of journalistic information, and the person selects for examination any material obtained under a bulk equipment interference warrant, the person knows or believes that the selection of that material does not comply with a requirement imposed by section 193 or 194, and the person deliberately selects that material in breach of that requirement. Sections 132 to 134 (duty not to make unauthorised disclosures) apply in relation to bulk equipment interference warrants as they apply in relation to targeted equipment interference warrants, but as if the reference in section 133(2)(c) to a requirement for disclosure imposed by virtue of section 126(4) were a reference to such a requirement imposed by virtue of section 190(4). “equipment data” has the meaning given by section 177; “protected material”, in relation to a bulk equipment interference warrant, has the meaning given by section 193(9); “the specified operational purposes” has the meaning given by section 183(12). section 261 (telecommunications definitions); section 263 (general definitions); section 264 (general definitions: “journalistic material” etc.); For the purposes of this Part and Part 7A, an intelligence service retains a bulk personal dataset if— the intelligence service obtains a set of information that includes personal data relating to a number of individuals, the nature of the set is such that the majority of the individuals are not, and are unlikely to become, of interest to the intelligence service in the exercise of its functions, after any initial examination of the contents, the intelligence service retains the set for the purpose of the exercise of its functions, and the set is held, or is to be held, electronically for analysis in the exercise of those functions. In this Part and Part 7A, “personal data” means— personal data within the meaning of section 3(2) of the Data Protection Act 2018 which is subject to processing described in section 82(1) of that Act by an intelligence service, and data relating to a deceased individual where the data would fall within paragraph (a) if it related to a living individual. An intelligence service may not exercise a power to retain a bulk personal dataset unless the retention of the dataset is authorised by a warrant under this Part , or by an individual authorisation under Part 7A (low or no reasonable expectation of privacy) (see section 226B). An intelligence service may not exercise a power to examine a bulk personal dataset retained by it unless the examination is authorised by an individual authorisation under Part 7A. For the purposes of this Part, there are two kinds of warrant— a warrant, referred to in this Part as “a class BPD warrant”, authorising an intelligence service to retain, or to retain and examine, any bulk personal dataset of a class described in the warrant; a warrant, referred to in this Part as “a specific BPD warrant”, authorising an intelligence service to retain, or to retain and examine, any bulk personal dataset described in the warrant. Section 201 sets out exceptions to the restrictions imposed by subsections (1) and (2) of this section. Section 200(1) or (2) does not apply to the exercise of a power of an intelligence service to retain or (as the case may be) examine a bulk personal dataset if the intelligence service obtained the bulk personal dataset under a warrant or other authorisation issued or given under this Act. Section 200(1) or (2) does not apply at any time when a bulk personal dataset is being retained or (as the case may be) examined for the purpose of enabling any of the information contained in it to be destroyed. Sections 210(8), 219(8) , 220(5) and (6) and 226CC(3) provide for other exceptions to section 200(1) or (2) (in connection with cases where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a specific BPD warrant, the non-renewal or cancellation of BPD warrants or authorisations under Part 7A and initial examinations). An intelligence service may not retain, or retain and examine, a bulk personal dataset in reliance on a class BPD warrant if the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, considers that the bulk personal dataset consists of, or includes, protected data. For the meaning of “protected data”, see section 203. An intelligence service may not retain, or retain and examine, a bulk personal dataset in reliance on a class BPD warrant if the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, considers— that the bulk personal dataset consists of, or includes, health records, or that a substantial proportion of the bulk personal dataset consists of sensitive personal data. An intelligence service may not retain, or retain and examine, a bulk personal dataset in reliance on a class BPD warrant if the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, considers that the nature of the bulk personal dataset, or the circumstances in which it was created, is or are such that its retention, or retention and examination, by the intelligence service raises novel or contentious issues which ought to be considered by the Secretary of State and a Judicial Commissioner on an application ... for a specific BPD warrant. In subsection (2)— “health records” has the same meaning as in section 206; “sensitive personal data” means personal data whose retention, or (as appropriate) retention and examination, would be sensitive processing; “sensitive processing” means— processing of personal data relating to a living individual that is processing of a kind described in section 86(7)(a) to (e) of the Data Protection Act 2018, or processing of personal data relating to a deceased individual that would be that kind of processing if the personal data related to a living individual. For the purposes of subsections (1), (2) and (3), only a person holding office under the Crown may act on behalf of the head of an intelligence service. The Secretary of State may by regulations— make provision so that a description of Part 4 sensitive processing, or of processing that would be such processing if the information processed related to a living individual, is sensitive processing for the purposes of section 202, and make provision so that added processing is not sensitive processing for the purposes of that section. “added processing” means a description of processing that is sensitive processing for the purposes of section 202 by virtue of provision made under subsection (1)(a); “Part 4 sensitive processing” means processing of personal data that, at the time the regulations are made, is sensitive processing for the purposes of Part 4 of the Data Protection Act 2018 by virtue of regulations made under section 91A of that Act. Regulations under this section may amend section 202. In this Part, “protected data” means any data contained in a bulk personal dataset other than data which is one or more of the following— data which falls within subsection (2); data which is not private information. is contained in the bulk personal dataset, is capable of being logically separated from the bulk personal dataset, and if it were so separated, would not reveal anything of what might reasonably be considered to be the meaning (if any) of any of the data which would remain in the bulk personal dataset or of the bulk personal dataset itself, disregarding any meaning arising from the existence of that data or (as the case may be) the existence of the bulk personal dataset or from any data relating to that fact. For the meaning of “systems data” see section 263(4). In this section, “private information” includes information relating to a person's private or family life. The head of an intelligence service, or a person acting on his or her behalf, may apply to the Secretary of State for a class BPD warrant. The application must include— a description of the class of bulk personal datasets to which the application relates, and in a case where the intelligence service is seeking authorisation for the examination of bulk personal datasets of that class, the operational purposes which it is proposing should be specified in the warrant (see section 212). The Secretary of State may issue the warrant if— for the purposes of preventing or detecting serious crime, or the Secretary of State considers that the conduct authorised by the warrant is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by the conduct, where the warrant authorises the examination of bulk personal datasets of the class described in the warrant, the Secretary of State considers that— each of the specified operational purposes (see section 212) is a purpose for which the examination of bulk personal datasets of that class is or may be necessary, and the examination of bulk personal datasets of that class for each such purpose is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary, the Secretary of State considers that the arrangements made by the intelligence service for storing bulk personal datasets of the class to which the application relates and for protecting them from unauthorised disclosure are satisfactory, and The fact that a class BPD warrant would authorise the retention, or the retention and examination, of bulk personal datasets relating to activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within subsection (3)(a). An application for a class BPD warrant may only be made on behalf of the head of an intelligence service by a person holding office under the Crown. The head of an intelligence service, or a person acting on his or her behalf, may apply to the Secretary of State for a specific BPD warrant in the following cases. Case 1 is where— the intelligence service is seeking authorisation to retain, or to retain and examine, a bulk personal dataset, and the bulk personal dataset does not fall within a class described in a class BPD warrant. Case 2 is where— the bulk personal dataset falls within a class described in a class BPD warrant but either— the intelligence service is prevented by section 202(1), (2) or (3) from retaining, or retaining and examining, the bulk personal dataset in reliance on the class BPD warrant, or the intelligence service at any time considers that it would be appropriate to seek a specific BPD warrant. a description of the bulk personal dataset to which the application relates, and in a case where the intelligence service is seeking authorisation for the examination of the bulk personal dataset, the operational purposes which it is proposing should be specified in the warrant (see section 212). Where subsection (3)(b)(i) applies, the application must include an explanation of why the intelligence service is prevented by section 202(1), (2) or (3) from retaining, or retaining and examining, the bulk personal dataset in reliance on a class BPD warrant. where the warrant authorises the examination of a bulk personal dataset, the Secretary of State considers that— each of the specified operational purposes (see section 212) is a purpose for which the examination of the bulk personal dataset is or may be necessary, and the examination of the bulk personal dataset for each such purpose is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary, the Secretary of State considers that the arrangements made by the intelligence service for storing the bulk personal dataset and for protecting it from unauthorised disclosure are satisfactory, and except where the Secretary of State considers that there is an urgent need to issue the warrant, the decision to issue it has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. The fact that a specific BPD warrant would authorise the retention, or the retention and examination, of bulk personal datasets relating to activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within subsection (6)(a). A specific BPD warrant relating to a bulk personal dataset (“dataset A”) may also authorise the retention or examination of other bulk personal datasets (“replacement datasets”) that do not exist at the time of the issue of the warrant but may reasonably be regarded as replacements for dataset A. An application for a specific BPD warrant may only be made on behalf of the head of an intelligence service by a person holding office under the Crown. Subsections (2) and (3) apply if— an application is made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service for the issue of a specific BPD warrant, and the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is to authorise the retention, or the retention and examination, of health records. The application must contain a statement that the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the warrant is to authorise the retention, or the retention and examination, of health records. The Secretary of State may issue the warrant only if the Secretary of State considers that there are exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise the retention, or the retention and examination, of health records. Subsection (5) applies if— an application is made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service for a specific BPD warrant, the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, considers that the bulk personal dataset includes, or is likely to include, health records, and subsections (2) and (3) do not apply.

The application must contain either— a statement that the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, considers that the bulk personal dataset includes health records, or a statement that the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, considers that it is likely that the bulk personal dataset includes health records and an assessment of how likely this is. In this section, “health record” means a record, or a copy of a record, which— consists of information relating to the physical or mental health or condition of an individual, was made by or on behalf of a health professional in connection with the care of that individual, and was obtained by the intelligence service from a health professional or a health service body or from a person acting on behalf of a health professional or a health service body in relation to the record or the copy. In subsection (6)— “health professional” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 204(1) of that Act); “health service body” has meaning given by section 204(4) of that Act. For the purposes of subsections (4)(b) and (5), only a person holding office under the Crown may act on behalf of the head of an intelligence service. Where the Secretary of State decides to issue a specific BPD warrant, the Secretary of State may impose conditions which must be satisfied before protected data retained in reliance on the warrant may be selected for examination on the basis of criteria which are referable to an individual known to be in the British Islands at the time of the selection. In deciding whether to approve a decision to issue a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to the following matters— whether the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within section 204(3)(a) or (as the case may be) section 205(6)(a), where the warrant authorises examination of bulk personal datasets of a class described in the warrant or (as the case may be) of a bulk personal dataset described in the warrant, whether— each of the specified operational purposes (see section 212) is a purpose for which the examination of bulk personal datasets of that class or (as the case may be) the bulk personal dataset is or may be necessary, and the examination of bulk personal datasets of that class or (as the case may be) the bulk personal dataset is necessary as mentioned in section 204(3)(c)(ii) or (as the case may be) section 205(6)(c)(ii). Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to issue a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to issue a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to issue the warrant. a specific BPD warrant is issued without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and If a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to issue a specific BPD warrant, the warrant— and section 208(4) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. Section 210 contains further provision about what happens if a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to issue a warrant. This section applies where under section 209(3) a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to issue a warrant. The head of the intelligence service to whom the warrant was addressed must, so far as is reasonably practicable, secure that anything in the process of being done in reliance on the warrant stops as soon as possible. direct that the whole or part of a bulk personal dataset retained in reliance on the warrant is destroyed; impose conditions as to the use or retention of the whole or part of any such bulk personal dataset. the head of the intelligence service to whom the warrant was addressed. An intelligence service is not to be regarded as in breach of section 200(1) or (2) where it retains or (as the case may be) examines a bulk personal dataset in accordance with conditions imposed under subsection (3)(b). Nothing in this section or section 209 affects the lawfulness of— anything done in reliance on the warrant before it ceases to have effect; if anything is in the process of being done in reliance on the warrant when it ceases to have effect— The decision to issue a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State. Before a class BPD warrant is issued, it must be signed by the Secretary of State. Before a specific BPD warrant is issued, it must be signed by the Secretary of State (subject to subsection (4)). If it is not reasonably practicable for a specific BPD warrant to be signed by the Secretary of State, it may be signed by a senior official designated by the Secretary of State for that purpose. A class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant must contain a provision stating whether it is a class BPD warrant or (as the case may be) a specific BPD warrant. A class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant must be addressed to the head of the intelligence service by whom, or on whose behalf, the application for the warrant was made. A class BPD warrant must— include a description of the class of bulk personal datasets to which the warrant relates, and where the warrant authorises examination of bulk personal datasets of that class, specify the operational purposes for which data contained in bulk personal datasets of that class may be selected for examination. A specific BPD warrant must— describe the bulk personal dataset to which the warrant relates, where the warrant authorises the retention or examination of replacement datasets, include a description that will enable those datasets to be identified, where the warrant authorises the examination of the bulk personal dataset or replacement datasets, specify the operational purposes for which data contained in the bulk personal dataset and any replacement datasets may be selected for examination, and where the Secretary of State has imposed conditions under section 207, specify those conditions. The operational purposes specified in a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant must be ones specified, in a list maintained by the heads of the intelligence services (“the list of operational purposes”), as purposes which they consider are operational purposes for which data contained in bulk personal datasets retained in reliance on class BPD warrants or specific BPD warrants may be selected for examination. A class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant may, in particular, specify all of the operational purposes which, at the time the warrant is issued, are specified in the list of operational purposes. The Secretary of State may give such approval only if satisfied that the operational purpose is specified in a greater level of detail than the descriptions contained in section 204(3)(a) or (as the case may be) section 205(6)(a). In this Part, “the specified operational purposes”, in relation to a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant, means the operational purposes specified in the warrant in accordance with this section. A class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period (see subsection (2)) unless— it is renewed before the end of that period (see section 214), or it is cancelled or (in the case of a specific BPD warrant) otherwise ceases to have effect before the end of that period (see sections 209 and 218). in the case of an urgent specific BPD warrant (see subsection (3)), means the period ending with the fifth working day after the day on which the warrant was issued; in any other case, means the period of 12 months beginning with— For the purposes of subsection (2)(a), a specific BPD warrant is an “urgent specific BPD warrant” if— For provision about the renewal of warrants, see section 214. If the renewal conditions are met, a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant may be renewed, at any time during the renewal period, by an instrument issued by the Secretary of State. that the Secretary of State considers that the warrant continues to be necessary on grounds falling within section 204(3)(a) or (as the case may be) section 205(6)(a), that the Secretary of State considers that the conduct that would be authorised by the renewed warrant continues to be proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by the conduct, where the warrant authorises examination of bulk personal datasets of a class described in the warrant or (as the case may be) of a bulk personal dataset described in the warrant, that the Secretary of State considers that— each of the specified operational purposes (see section 212) is a purpose for which the examination of bulk personal datasets of that class or (as the case may be) the bulk personal dataset continues to be, or may be, necessary, and the examination of bulk personal datasets of that class or (as the case may be) the bulk personal dataset continues to be necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers that the warrant continues to be necessary, and in the case of an urgent specific BPD warrant which has not been renewed, the relevant period; The decision to renew a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State, and the instrument renewing the warrant must be signed by the Secretary of State. Section 207 (protected data: power to impose conditions) applies in relation to the renewal of a specific BPD warrant as it applies in relation to the issue of such a warrant (whether or not any conditions have previously been imposed in relation to the warrant under that section). Section 208 (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioner) applies in relation to a decision to renew a warrant as it applies in relation to a decision to issue a warrant. “the relevant period” has the same meaning as in section 213; “urgent specific BPD warrant” is to be read in accordance with subsection (3) of that section. The provisions of a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant may be modified at any time by an instrument issued by the person making the modification. in the case of a class BPD warrant, adding, varying or removing any operational purpose specified in the warrant as a purpose for which bulk personal datasets of a class described in the warrant may be examined; in the case of a specific BPD warrant, adding, varying or removing any operational purpose specified in the warrant as a purpose for which the bulk personal dataset described in the warrant may be examined. a modification adding or varying any operational purpose is referred to as a “major modification”, and a modification removing any operational purpose is referred to as a “minor modification”. may be made only if the Secretary of State considers that it is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary (see section 204(3)(a) or (as the case may be) section 205(6)(a)). If at any time a person mentioned in subsection (6) considers that any operational purpose specified in a warrant is no longer a purpose for which the examination of any bulk personal datasets to which the warrant relates is or may be necessary, the person must modify the warrant by removing that operational purpose. The decision to modify the provisions of a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant must be taken personally by the person making the modification, and the instrument making the modification must be signed by that person. In deciding whether to approve a decision to make a major modification of a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to whether the modification is necessary on any of the grounds on which the Secretary of State considers the warrant to be necessary. Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to make a major modification under section 215, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to make a major modification under section 215, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to make the modification. the Secretary of State makes a major modification of a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and the person to whom the warrant is addressed must, so far as is reasonably practicable, secure that anything in the process of being done in reliance on the warrant by virtue of that modification stops as soon as possible, and section 216(4) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. anything done in reliance on the warrant by virtue of the modification before the modification ceases to have effect; if anything is in the process of being done in reliance on the warrant by virtue of the modification when the modification ceases to have effect— The Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, may cancel a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant at any time. If the Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, considers that any of the cancellation conditions are met in relation to a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant, the person must cancel the warrant. that the warrant is no longer necessary on any grounds falling within section 204(3)(a) or (as the case may be) section 205(6)(a); where the warrant authorises examination of bulk personal datasets of a class described in the warrant or (as the case may be) of a bulk personal dataset described in the warrant, that the examination of bulk personal datasets of that class or (as the case may be) of the bulk personal dataset is no longer necessary for any of the specified operational purposes (see section 212). This section applies where a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant ceases to have effect because it expires without having been renewed or because it is cancelled. The head of the intelligence service to whom the warrant was addressed , or a person acting on their behalf, may, before the end of the period of 5 working days beginning with the day on which the warrant ceases to have effect— apply for— a specific BPD warrant authorising the retention, or the retention and examination, of the whole or any part of the material retained by the intelligence service in reliance on the warrant which has ceased to have effect; a class BPD warrant authorising the retention or (as the case may be) the retention and examination of bulk personal datasets of a class that is described in a way that would authorise the retention or (as the case may be) the retention and examination of the whole or any part of such material, or where the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, wishes to give further consideration to whether to apply for a warrant of a kind mentioned in paragraph (a)(i) or (ii), apply to the Secretary of State for authorisation to retain, or to retain and examine, the whole or any part of the material retained by the intelligence service in reliance on the warrant. On an application under subsection (2)(b), the Secretary of State may— direct that any of the material to which the application relates be destroyed; with the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, authorise the retention or (as the case may be) the retention and examination of any of that material, subject to such conditions as the Secretary of State considers appropriate, for a period specified by the Secretary of State which may not exceed 3 months. In deciding whether to give approval for the purposes of subsection (3)(b), the Judicial Commissioner must— consider the matter with a sufficient degree of care as to ensure that the Judicial Commissioner complies with the duties imposed by section 2 (general duties in relation to privacy). Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision by the Secretary of State to authorise the retention or (as the case may be) the retention and examination of any material under subsection (3)(b), the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the decision. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve such a decision, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision. If, during the period specified by the Secretary of State under subsection (3)(b), the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, decides to apply for a warrant of a kind mentioned in subsection (2)(a)(i) or (ii), the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, must make the application as soon as reasonably practicable and before the end of the period specified by the Secretary of State. Where a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant ceases to have effect because it expires without having been renewed or it is cancelled, an intelligence service is not to be regarded as in breach of section 200(1) or (2) by virtue of its retention or examination of any material to which the warrant related during any of the following periods. First period The period of 5 working days beginning with the day on which the warrant ceases to have effect. Second period The period beginning with the day on which the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, makes an application under subsection (2)(a) or (b) in relation to the material and ending with the determination of the application. Third period The period during which the retention or examination of the material is authorised under subsection (3)(b). Fourth period Where authorisation under subsection (3)(b) is given and the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, subsequently makes, in accordance with subsection (7), an application for a specific BPD warrant or a class BPD warrant in relation to the material, the period (if any) beginning with the expiry of the authorisation under subsection (3)(b) and ending with the determination of the application for the warrant. For the purposes of subsections (2), (7) and (8), only a person holding office under the Crown may act on behalf of the head of an intelligence service. an intelligence service obtains a set of information otherwise than in the exercise of a power conferred by a warrant or other authorisation issued or given under this Act, and the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, believes that— the set includes, or may include, personal data relating to a number of individuals, and the nature of the set is, or may be, such that the majority of the individuals are not, and are unlikely to become, of interest to the intelligence service in the exercise of its functions. The head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, must take the following steps before the end of the permitted period. Step 1 Carry out an initial examination of the set for the purpose of deciding whether, if the intelligence service were to retain it after that initial examination and hold it electronically for analysis for the purposes of the exercise of its functions, the intelligence service would be retaining a bulk personal dataset (see section 199). Step 2 If the intelligence service would be retaining a bulk personal dataset as mentioned in step 1, decide whether to retain the set and hold it electronically for analysis for the purposes of the exercise of the functions of the intelligence service. Step 3 If the head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, decides to retain the set and hold it electronically for analysis as mentioned in step 2, as soon as reasonably practicable after making that decision— apply for a specific BPD warrant (unless the retention of the dataset is authorised by a class BPD warrant), or where the head of the intelligence service, or the person acting on their behalf, considers that section 226A applies to the dataset, decide to grant an individual authorisation under Part 7A. The permitted period begins when the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, first forms the beliefs mentioned in subsection (1)(b). The permitted period ends— where the set of information was created in the United Kingdom, 3 months after the day on which it begins; where the set of information was created outside the United Kingdom, 6 months after the day on which it begins. If the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, applies for a specific BPD warrant in accordance with step 3 (set out in subsection (2))— the intelligence service is not to be regarded as in breach of section 200(1) by virtue of retaining the bulk personal dataset during the period between the taking of the decision mentioned in step 2 and the determination of the application for the specific BPD warrant, and the intelligence service is not to be regarded as in breach of section 200(2) by virtue of examining the bulk personal dataset during that period if the examination is necessary for the purposes of the making of the application for the warrant. If the head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, decides to grant an individual authorisation under Part 7A in accordance with step 3 (set out in subsection (2))— the intelligence service is not to be regarded as in breach of section 200(1) by virtue of retaining the bulk personal dataset during any period when a Judicial Commissioner is deciding whether to approve the decision to grant the authorisation (see section 226B(5)), and the intelligence service is not to be regarded as in breach of section 200(2) by virtue of examining the bulk personal dataset during that period if the examination is necessary in connection with obtaining the approval of a Judicial Commissioner. For the purposes of this section, only a person holding office under the Crown may act on behalf of the head of an intelligence service. The Secretary of State must ensure, in relation to every class BPD warrant or specific BPD warrant which authorises examination of bulk personal datasets of a class described in the warrant or (as the case may be) of a bulk personal dataset described in the warrant, that arrangements are in force for securing that— any selection of data contained in the datasets (or dataset) for examination is carried out only for the specified purposes (see subsection (2)), and the selection of any such data for examination is necessary and proportionate in all the circumstances. The selection of data contained in bulk personal datasets for examination is carried out only for the specified purposes if the data is selected for examination only so far as is necessary for the operational purposes specified in the warrant in accordance with section 212. The Secretary of State must also ensure, in relation to every specific BPD warrant which specifies conditions imposed under section 207, that arrangements are in force for securing that any selection for examination of protected data on the basis of criteria which are referable to an individual known to be in the British Islands at the time of the selection is in accordance with the conditions specified in the warrant. In this section “specified in the warrant” means specified in the warrant at the time of the selection of the data for examination. Subsections (2) and (3) apply if, in a case where protected data retained in reliance on a specific BPD warrant is to be selected for examination— the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using the criteria to be used for the selection of the data for examination (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify any items subject to legal privilege, or If the relevant criteria are referable to an individual known to be in the British Islands at the time of the selection, the data may be selected for examination using the relevant criteria only if the Secretary of State has approved the use of those criteria. In any other case, the data may be selected for examination using the relevant criteria only if a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State has approved the use of those criteria. The Secretary of State may give approval for the purposes of subsection (2) only with the approval of a Judicial Commissioner. Approval may be given under subsection (2) or (3) only if— the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the senior official considers that the arrangements mentioned in section 205(6)(d) include specific arrangements in respect of items subject to legal privilege, and where subsection (1)(a) applies, the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the senior official considers that there are exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise the use of the relevant criteria. In deciding whether to give an approval under subsection (2) or (3) in a case where subsection (1)(a) applies, the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the senior official must have regard to the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege. For the purposes of subsection (5)(b), there cannot be exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise the use of the relevant criteria unless— the public interest in obtaining the information that would be obtained by the selection of the data for examination outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege, In deciding whether to give approval for the purposes of subsection (4), the Judicial Commissioner must— Subsections (10) and (11) apply if, in a case where protected data retained in reliance on a specific BPD warrant is to be selected for examination— the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using the criteria to be used for the selection of the data for examination (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify data that, if the data or any underlying material were not created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose, would be an item subject to legal privilege, and the person to whom the warrant is addressed considers that the data (“the targeted data”) or any underlying material is likely to be data or underlying material created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. Approval may be given under subsection (10) or (11) only if the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the senior official considers that the targeted data or the underlying material is likely to be data or underlying material created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose. In this section, “underlying material”, in relation to data retained in reliance on a specific BPD warrant, means any communications or other items of information from which the data was produced. Where an item subject to legal privilege is retained following its examination in reliance on a specific BPD warrant, for purposes other than the destruction of the item, the person to whom the warrant is addressed must inform the Investigatory Powers Commissioner as soon as is reasonably practicable. Unless the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers that subsection (4) applies to the item, the Commissioner must— If the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers that subsection (4) applies to the item, the Commissioner may nevertheless impose such conditions under subsection (2)(b) as the Commissioner considers necessary for the purpose of protecting the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege. may require an affected party to make representations about how the Commissioner should exercise any function under subsection (2), and the person selects for examination any data contained in a bulk personal dataset retained in reliance on a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant, the person knows or believes that the selection of that data is in breach of a requirement specified in subsection (2), and the person deliberately selects that data in breach of that requirement. The requirements specified in this subsection are that any selection for examination of the data— is carried out only for the specified purposes (see subsection (3)), is necessary and proportionate, and if the data is protected data, satisfies any conditions imposed under section 207. The selection for examination of the data is carried out only for the specified purposes if the data is selected for examination only so far as is necessary for the operational purposes specified in the warrant in accordance with section 212. In this subsection, “specified in the warrant” means specified in the warrant at the time of the selection of the data for examination. Subject to subsection (2), this section applies where a bulk personal dataset has been obtained by an intelligence service under a warrant or other authorisation issued or given under this Act (and, accordingly, section 200(1) and (2) do not apply by virtue of section 201(1)). This section does not apply where the bulk personal dataset was obtained by the intelligence service under a bulk acquisition warrant issued under Chapter 2 of Part 6. Where this section applies, the Secretary of State may, on the application of the head of the intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, give a direction that— the intelligence service may retain, or retain and examine, the bulk personal dataset by virtue of the direction, any other power of the intelligence service to retain or examine the bulk personal dataset, and any associated regulatory provision, ceases to apply in relation to the bulk personal dataset (subject to subsection (5)), and section 201(1) also ceases to apply in relation to the bulk personal dataset. Accordingly, where a direction is given under subsection (3), the intelligence service may exercise its power by virtue of the direction to retain, or to retain and examine, the bulk personal dataset only if authorised to do so by a class BPD warrant or a specific BPD warrant under this Part , or by an individual authorisation under Part 7A (low or no reasonable expectation of privacy). A direction under subsection (3) may provide for any associated regulatory provision specified in the direction to continue to apply in relation to the bulk personal dataset, with or without modifications specified in the direction. The power conferred by subsection (5) must be exercised to ensure that— where section 56 and Schedule 3 applied in relation to the bulk personal dataset immediately before the giving of the direction, they continue to apply in relation to it (without modification); where sections 57 to 59 applied in relation to the bulk personal dataset immediately before the giving of the direction, they continue to apply in relation to it with the modification that the reference in section 58(7)(a) to the provisions of Part 2 is to be read as including a reference to the provisions of this Part. The Secretary of State may only give a direction under subsection (3) with the approval of a Judicial Commissioner. In deciding whether to give approval for the purposes of subsection (7), the Judicial Commissioner must apply the same principles as would be applied by a court on an application for judicial review. Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision by the Secretary of State to give a direction under subsection (3), the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the decision. A direction under subsection (3)— may not be revoked; may be varied but only for the purpose of altering or removing any provision included in the direction under subsection (5). Subsections (7) to (10) apply in relation to the variation of a direction under subsection (3) as they apply in relation to the giving of a direction under that subsection. The head of an intelligence service , or a person acting on their behalf, may, at the same time as applying for a direction under subsection (3), apply for a specific BPD warrant under section 205 (and the Secretary of State may issue such a warrant at the same time as giving the direction) , or decide to grant an individual authorisation under Part 7A. In this section, “associated regulatory provision”, in relation to a power of an intelligence service to retain or examine a bulk personal dataset, means any provision which— is made by or for the purposes of this Act (other than this Part), and applied in relation to the retention, examination, disclosure or other use of the bulk personal dataset immediately before the giving of a direction under subsection (3). For the purposes of subsections (3) and (13), only a person holding office under the Crown may act on behalf of the head of an intelligence service. “class BPD warrant” has the meaning given by section 200(3)(a); “personal data” has the meaning given by section 199(2); “specific BPD warrant” has the meaning given by section 200(3)(b); “the specified operational purposes” has the meaning given by section 212(12). This section applies to a bulk personal dataset if the nature of the bulk personal dataset is such that the individuals to whom the personal data relates could have no, or only a low, reasonable expectation of privacy in relation to the data. In considering whether this section applies to a bulk personal dataset, regard must be had to all the circumstances, including in particular the factors in subsection (3). Those factors are— the nature of the data; the extent to which— the data has been made public by the individuals, or the individuals have consented to the data being made public; if the data has been published, the extent to which it was published subject to editorial control or by a person acting in accordance with professional standards; if the data has been published or is otherwise in the public domain, the extent to which the data is widely known about; the extent to which the data has already been used in the public domain. In this Part “an individual authorisation” is an authorisation that authorises an intelligence service to retain, or to retain and examine, any bulk personal dataset described in the authorisation. See section 200 (requirement for authorisation) for provision about when an individual authorisation under this Part is required. The head of an intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, may grant an individual authorisation where the conditions in subsections (4) and (5) are met. The condition in this subsection is that the person granting the authorisation considers that— section 226A applies to the bulk personal dataset described in the authorisation, the authorisation is necessary for the purpose of the exercise of any function of the intelligence service, the conduct being authorised is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by the conduct, and there are for the time being in force arrangements made by the intelligence service, and approved by the Secretary of State, for storing bulk personal datasets to which section 226A applies and for protecting them from unauthorised disclosure. The condition in this subsection is that the decision to grant the authorisation has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. The condition in subsection (5) does not apply where— the bulk personal dataset described in the individual authorisation falls within a category of bulk personal datasets authorised for the purposes of this Part by a category authorisation (see section 226BA), or the person granting the individual authorisation considers that there is an urgent need to grant the authorisation. But subsection (6)(a) does not prevent a person granting an individual authorisation from seeking the approval of a Judicial Commissioner in a case where subsection (6)(a) applies if the person considers that it would be appropriate to seek such approval. An individual authorisation relating to a bulk personal dataset (“dataset A”) may also authorise the retention or examination of other bulk personal datasets (“replacement datasets”) that do not exist at the time of the grant of the authorisation but may reasonably be regarded as replacements for dataset A. In this Part “a category authorisation” is an authorisation that authorises a category of bulk personal datasets described in the authorisation for the purposes of this Part. The head of an intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, may grant a category authorisation where— they consider that section 226A applies to any dataset that falls within the category of datasets described in the authorisation, and the decision to grant the authorisation has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. A category authorisation may describe a category of bulk personal datasets by reference to (among other things) the use to which the datasets will be put. In deciding whether to approve a decision to grant an individual authorisation or a category authorisation, a Judicial Commissioner must review the conclusions of the person who granted the authorisation as to the following matters— in relation to an individual authorisation, whether section 226A applies to the bulk personal dataset described in the authorisation, and in relation to a category authorisation, whether section 226A applies to any dataset that falls within the category of datasets described in the authorisation. Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to grant an individual authorisation or a category authorisation, the Judicial Commissioner must give the person who decided to grant the authorisation written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to grant an individual authorisation or a category authorisation, the head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to grant the authorisation. an individual authorisation is granted without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and the person who granted the authorisation considered that there was an urgent need to grant it. The person who granted the authorisation must inform a Judicial Commissioner that it has been granted. decide whether to approve the decision to grant the authorisation, and notify the person who granted the authorisation of the Judicial Commissioner’s decision. The “relevant period” means the period ending with the third working day after the day on which the authorisation was granted. Subsections (5) to (7) apply if a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to grant an individual authorisation. The authorisation— and section 226BB(4) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. The head of the intelligence service must, so far as is reasonably practicable, secure that anything in the process of being done in reliance on the authorisation stops as soon as possible. Section 220 (Part 7 initial examinations: time limits) applies in relation to the bulk personal dataset described in the authorisation as if the intelligence service had obtained that dataset at the time when the person who granted the authorisation is notified that the Judicial Commissioner has refused to approve the decision to grant the authorisation. Nothing in subsection (5) or (6) affects the lawfulness of— anything done in reliance on the authorisation before it ceases to have effect; if anything is in the process of being done in reliance on the authorisation when it ceases to have effect— An individual authorisation or a category authorisation ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless— it is renewed before the end of that period (see section 226CA), or it is cancelled or otherwise ceases to have effect before the end of that period (see sections 226BC, 226CB, and 226CD). In this section the “relevant period”— in the case of an urgent individual authorisation, means the period ending with the fifth working day after the day on which the authorisation was granted; in any other case, means the period of 12 months beginning with— the day on which the authorisation was granted, or in the case of an authorisation that has been renewed, the day after the day at the end of which the authorisation would have ceased to have effect if it had not been renewed. For the purposes of subsection (2)(a), an individual authorisation is an “urgent individual authorisation” if— the authorisation was granted without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and If the renewal conditions are met for an individual authorisation or a category authorisation, the head of an intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, may, at any time during the renewal period, renew the authorisation. The renewal conditions for an individual authorisation are that— the person renewing the authorisation considers that— section 226A continues to apply to the bulk personal dataset described in the authorisation, the authorisation continues to be necessary for the purpose of the exercise of any function of the intelligence service, the conduct being authorised continues to be proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by the conduct, and there are for the time being in force arrangements made by the intelligence service, and approved by the Secretary of State, for storing bulk personal datasets to which section 226A applies and for protecting them from unauthorised disclosure, and the decision to renew the authorisation has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. But the condition in subsection (2)(b) does not apply where the bulk personal dataset described in the individual authorisation falls within a category of bulk personal datasets authorised for the purposes of this Part by a category authorisation. The renewal conditions for a category authorisation are that— the person renewing the authorisation considers that section 226A continues to apply to any dataset that falls within the category of datasets described in the authorisation, and In this section the “renewal period” means— in the case of an urgent individual authorisation which has not been renewed, the relevant period; in the case of an individual authorisation to which section 226CD (non-renewal or cancellation of category authorisation) applies, the period of three months ending with the day at the end of which the authorisation would otherwise cease to have effect; in any other case, the period of 30 days ending with the day at the end of which the authorisation would otherwise cease to have effect. Section 226BB (approval of authorisations by Judicial Commissioner) applies in relation to a decision to renew an authorisation under this section as it applies in relation to a decision to grant an authorisation under this Part. “the relevant period” has the same meaning as in section 226C; “urgent individual authorisation” is to be read in accordance with subsection (3) of that section. The head of an intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, may, at any time, cancel an individual authorisation or a category authorisation. If the head of an intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, considers that any of the cancellation conditions are met in relation to an individual authorisation, or that the cancellation condition is met in relation to a category authorisation, they must cancel the authorisation. The cancellation conditions for an individual authorisation are— that section 226A no longer applies to the dataset described in the authorisation; that the authorisation is no longer necessary for the purpose of the exercise of any function of the intelligence service; that the conduct authorised by the authorisation is no longer proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by the conduct; that there are no longer in force arrangements made by the intelligence service, and approved by the Secretary of State, for storing bulk personal datasets to which section 226A applies and for protecting them from unauthorised disclosure. The cancellation condition for a category authorisation is that section 226A no longer applies to any dataset that falls within the category of datasets described in the authorisation. This section applies where an individual authorisation ceases to have effect because it expires without having been renewed or because it is cancelled. The head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, may, before the end of the period of 5 working days beginning with the day on which the authorisation ceases to have effect, decide to grant a new individual authorisation (see section 226B) to retain, or to retain and examine, any material retained by the intelligence service in reliance on the authorisation which has ceased to have effect. Where an individual authorisation ceases to have effect because it expires without having been renewed or because it is cancelled, an intelligence service is not to be regarded as in breach of section 200(1) or (2) by virtue of its retention or examination of any material to which the authorisation related during the following periods— the period of 5 working days beginning with the day on which the authorisation ceases to have effect; if the head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, decides to grant a new individual authorisation as mentioned in subsection (2), any period when a Judicial Commissioner is deciding whether to approve the decision. a category authorisation ceases to have effect because it expires without having been renewed or because it is cancelled, and an individual authorisation describing a bulk personal dataset that falls within the category of datasets described in the category authorisation has been granted without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner in accordance with section 226B(6)(a). The individual authorisation ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless— it is renewed before the end of that period, or it is cancelled or otherwise ceases to have effect before the end of that period. In this section the “relevant period” means the period of three months beginning with the day after the day at the end of which the category authorisation ceased to have effect. Subsections (2) to (4) apply where— an individual authorisation is granted under this Part in relation to any bulk personal dataset, and in the course of examining the dataset in accordance with the authorisation, the head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, believes that section 226A does not apply, or no longer applies, to part of the dataset. The head of the intelligence service must, so far as is reasonably practicable, secure that anything in the process of being done in relation to that part of the bulk personal dataset in reliance on the authorisation stops as soon as possible. Section 220 (Part 7 initial examinations: time limits) applies in relation to that part of the bulk personal dataset as if the intelligence service had obtained that part of the dataset at the time when the head of the intelligence service, or the person acting on their behalf, first formed the beliefs mentioned in subsection (1)(b). The individual authorisation in relation to that part of the bulk personal dataset is to be treated as if it had been cancelled under section 226CB at that time.

The head of each intelligence service must provide an annual report to the Secretary of State about the bulk personal datasets that were authorised under this Part to be retained, or retained and examined, by the intelligence service during the period to which the report relates. The first report must relate to a period of at least one year and no more than two years, beginning with the day on which this Part comes fully into force. Subsequent reports must relate to a period of no more than one year, beginning with the end of the period to which the previous report related. Each report must be provided to the Secretary of State as soon as reasonably practicable after the end of the period to which the report relates. The Secretary of State must for each relevant period provide to the Intelligence and Security Committee of Parliament a report setting out information about category authorisations and renewals of category authorisations granted in that period. In subsection (1) “relevant period” means— a period of at least one year and no more than two years beginning with the date on which this Part comes fully into force, and subsequent periods of no more than one year, beginning with the end of the period to which the previous report related. Each report must be provided to the Committee as soon as reasonably practicable after the end of the period to which the report relates. “category authorisation” has the meaning given by section 226BA(1); “individual authorisation” has the meaning given by section 226B(1). section 199 (bulk personal datasets: interpretation), For the purposes of this Part, only a person holding office under the Crown may act on behalf of the head of an intelligence service. For the purposes of this Part, an intelligence service examines a third party bulk personal dataset if— the intelligence service has relevant access, whether on payment or otherwise, to a set of information that is held electronically by a person other than an intelligence service, the set includes personal data relating to a number of individuals, the nature of the set is such that the majority of the individuals are not, and are unlikely to become, of interest to the intelligence service in the exercise of its functions, and after any initial inspection of the contents (see section 226I), the intelligence service examines the set electronically (but does not obtain the set) for the purpose of the exercise of its functions. For the purposes of subsection (1)(a), an intelligence service has “relevant access” to a set of information that is held electronically by another person where— the access is made available to the intelligence service as a result of arrangements made directly between the intelligence service and that other person, the type and extent of the access available to the intelligence service is not generally available (whether on a commercial basis or otherwise), and the access is electronic. An intelligence service may not exercise a power to examine a third party bulk personal dataset unless the examination of the dataset is authorised by a third party BPD warrant. A “third party BPD warrant” is a warrant issued under this Part authorising an intelligence service to examine any third party bulk personal dataset described in the warrant. A third party BPD warrant may authorise the examination of a bulk personal dataset— the content of which may vary from time to time, or that does not exist at the time of the issue of the warrant. Section 226F(1) does not apply to the exercise of a power of an intelligence service to examine a third party bulk personal dataset if the intelligence service examines the bulk personal dataset under any other warrant or authorisation issued or given under this Act. See section 226I(5) (initial inspection) for a further exception to 226F(1). The head of an intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, may apply to the Secretary of State for a third party BPD warrant. The application must include a general description of the bulk personal dataset (or datasets) to which the application relates. Where the person making the application knows that subsection (6) applies to any bulk personal dataset to which the application relates, the application must also include a statement to that effect. the Secretary of State considers that the arrangements made by the intelligence service for examining the bulk personal dataset (or datasets) to which the application relates are satisfactory, and The fact that a third party BPD warrant would authorise the examination of bulk personal datasets relating to activities in the British Islands of a trade union is not, of itself, sufficient to establish that the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within subsection (4)(a). This subsection applies to a bulk personal dataset if— the dataset consists of, or includes, protected data or health records, a substantial proportion of the dataset consists of sensitive personal data, or the nature of the dataset, or the circumstances in which it was created, is or are such that its examination by the intelligence service is likely to raise novel or contentious issues. “health record” means a record, or a copy of a record which— was obtained, by the person (mentioned in section 226E(1)(a)) who holds the dataset, from a health professional or a health service body or from a person acting on behalf of a health professional or a health service body in relation to the record or the copy; “sensitive personal data” has the meaning given by section 202(4). In subsection (7), “health professional” and “health service body” have the meaning given by section 206(7). An application for a third party BPD warrant may only be made on behalf of the head of an intelligence service by a person holding office under the Crown. In deciding whether to approve a decision to issue a third party BPD warrant, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State’s conclusions as to the following matters— whether the warrant is necessary on grounds falling within section 226G(4)(a), and Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to issue a third party BPD warrant, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to issue a third party BPD warrant, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to issue the warrant. a third party BPD warrant is issued without the approval of a Judicial Commissioner, and notify the Secretary of State of the Judicial Commissioner’s decision. The “relevant period” means the period ending with the third working day after the day on which the warrant was issued. Subsections (5) and (6) apply if a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to issue a third party BPD warrant. The warrant— and section 226GA(4) does not apply in relation to the refusal to approve the decision. The decision to issue a third party BPD warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State. Before a third party BPD warrant is issued, it must be signed by the Secretary of State. But if it is not reasonably practicable for a third party BPD warrant to be signed by the Secretary of State, it may be signed by a senior official designated by the Secretary of State for that purpose. A third party BPD warrant must— be addressed to the head of the intelligence service by whom, or on whose behalf, the application for the warrant was made, and include a general description of the bulk personal dataset (or datasets) to which the warrant relates. A third party BPD warrant ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless— it is renewed before the end of that period (see section 226HA), or it is cancelled or otherwise ceases to have effect before the end of that period (see sections 226GB and 226HB). In this section “the relevant period”— in the case of an urgent third party BPD warrant, means the period ending with the fifth working day after the day on which the warrant was issued, and For the purposes of this section, a third party BPD warrant is an “urgent third party BPD warrant” if— If the renewal conditions are met, a third party BPD warrant may be renewed, at any time during the renewal period, by an instrument issued by the Secretary of State. that the Secretary of State considers that the warrant continues to be necessary on grounds falling within section 226G(4)(a), that the Secretary of State considers that the conduct that would be authorised by the renewed warrant continues to be proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by the conduct, and in the case of an urgent third party BPD warrant which has not been renewed, the relevant period; The decision to renew a third party BPD warrant must be taken personally by the Secretary of State, and the instrument renewing the warrant must be signed by the Secretary of State. Section 226GA (approval of warrants by Judicial Commissioner) applies in relation to a decision to renew a warrant as it applies in relation to a decision to issue a warrant. “the relevant period” has the same meaning as in section 226H; “urgent third party BPD warrant” is to be read in accordance with subsection (3) of that section. The Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, may cancel a third party BPD warrant at any time. If the Secretary of State, or a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State, considers that any of the cancellation conditions are met in relation to a third party BPD warrant, the person must cancel the warrant. that the warrant is no longer necessary on any grounds falling within section 226G(4)(a); that the conduct authorised by the warrant is no longer proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct. This section applies where a third party BPD warrant ceases to have effect because it expires without having been renewed or because it is cancelled. an intelligence service has relevant access, whether on payment or otherwise, to a set of information that is held electronically by a person other than an intelligence service, the intelligence service is considering examining the set of information electronically for the purpose of the exercise of its functions, the examination would be otherwise than in the exercise of a power conferred by a warrant or other authorisation issued or given under this Act, and the head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, believes that— The head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, may carry out an initial inspection of the contents of the set for the purpose of deciding whether, if the intelligence service were to examine it after that initial inspection— the intelligence service would be examining a third party bulk personal dataset (see section 226E), and such examination would be necessary and proportionate in all the circumstances. Subsection (4) applies if, after the initial inspection is carried out, the head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, decides that— the intelligence service would be examining a third party bulk personal dataset (as mentioned in subsection (2)(a)), and The head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, must— decide whether to examine the third party bulk personal dataset, and if they decide to do so, apply for a third party BPD warrant. If the head of the intelligence service, or a person acting on their behalf, applies for such a third party BPD warrant, the intelligence service is not to be regarded as in breach of section 226F(1) by virtue of examining the bulk personal dataset if the examination is necessary for the purposes of the making of the application for the warrant. For the purposes of subsection (1)(a), “relevant access” is to be read in accordance with section 226E(2). The Secretary of State must ensure, in relation to every third party BPD warrant which authorises the examination of a bulk personal dataset, that arrangements are in force for securing that any examination of data contained in the dataset is necessary and proportionate in all the circumstances. In doing so, the Secretary of State must in particular have regard to the information that is reasonably available to the intelligence services in relation to the examination of such data. Subsections (2) and (3) apply if, in a case where protected data contained in a third party bulk personal dataset is to be examined in reliance on a third party BPD warrant— the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using the criteria to be used for the examination of the data (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify any items subject to legal privilege, or If the relevant criteria are referable to an individual known to be in the British Islands at the time of the examination, the data may be examined using the relevant criteria only if the Secretary of State has approved the use of those criteria. In any other case, the data may be examined using the relevant criteria only if a senior official acting on behalf of the Secretary of State has approved the use of those criteria. Approval may be given under subsection (2) or (3) only if, where subsection (1)(a) applies, the Secretary of State or (as the case may be) the senior official considers that there are exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise the use of the relevant criteria. For the purposes of subsection (5), there cannot be exceptional and compelling circumstances that make it necessary to authorise the use of the relevant criteria unless— the public interest in obtaining the information that would be obtained by the examination of the data outweighs the public interest in the confidentiality of items subject to legal privilege, Subsections (10) and (11) apply if, in a case where protected data contained in a third party bulk personal dataset is to be examined in reliance on a third party BPD warrant— the purpose, or one of the purposes, of using the criteria to be used for the examination of the data (“the relevant criteria”) is to identify data that, if the data or any underlying material were not created or held with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose, would be an item subject to legal privilege, and In this section “underlying material”, in relation to data contained in a third party bulk personal dataset that is to be examined in reliance on a third party BPD warrant, means any communications or other items of information from which the data was produced. Subsection (2) applies where— an intelligence service examines a third party bulk personal dataset in reliance on a third party BPD warrant, as part of the examination, the intelligence service examines an item subject to legal privilege, the intelligence service retains the item, and the retention of the item may not be authorised by a warrant under Part 7 (bulk personal dataset warrants). The person to whom the third party BPD warrant (mentioned in subsection (1)(a)) is addressed must inform the Investigatory Powers Commissioner as soon as reasonably practicable after retaining the item. Each of the following is an “affected party” for the purposes of subsection (6)— the person to whom the third party BPD warrant is or was addressed. the person examines, in reliance on a third party BPD warrant, any data contained in a third party bulk personal dataset, the person knows or believes that the examination of that data is in breach of the requirement specified in subsection (2), and the person deliberately examines that data in breach of that requirement. The requirement specified in this subsection is that any examination of the data is necessary and proportionate. on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court, to a fine or to both; on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both; on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both; on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years, to a fine or to both. “personal data” has the same meaning as in Part 7 (see section 199(2)); “protected data” has the same meaning as in Part 7 (see section 203); “senior official” means a member of the Senior Civil Service or a member of the Senior Management Structure of His Majesty’s Diplomatic Service; “third party BPD warrant” has the meaning given by section 226F. The Prime Minister must appoint— such number of other Judicial Commissioners as the Prime Minister considers necessary for the carrying out of the functions of the Judicial Commissioners. A person is not to be appointed as the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or another Judicial Commissioner unless the person holds or has held a high judicial office (within the meaning of Part 3 of the Constitutional Reform Act 2005). A person is not to be appointed as the Investigatory Powers Commissioner unless recommended jointly by— the Lord Chancellor, the Lord Chief Justice of England and Wales, the Lord President of the Court of Session, and the Lord Chief Justice of Northern Ireland. A person is not to be appointed as a Judicial Commissioner under subsection (1)(b) unless recommended jointly by— the Lord President of the Court of Session, the Lord Chief Justice of Northern Ireland, and the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. Before appointing any person under subsection (1), the Prime Minister must consult the Scottish Ministers. The Prime Minister must have regard to a memorandum of understanding agreed between the Prime Minister and the Scottish Ministers when exercising functions under subsection (1) or (5). The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may appoint up to two persons who are Judicial Commissioners to be Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioners. A person appointed as a Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner continues to be a Judicial Commissioner. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner is a Judicial Commissioner and the Investigatory Powers Commissioner and the other Judicial Commissioners are to be known, collectively, as the Judicial Commissioners. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may, to such extent as the Investigatory Powers Commissioner may decide, delegate the exercise of functions of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to— a Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner, or any other Judicial Commissioner. Subsection (8)(a) applies to the function of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner of— making a recommendation under subsection (4)(e), deciding under section 90(11) or 257(10) whether to approve a decision of the Secretary of State, making an appointment under section 228A(2) or 247(1), or deciding— an appeal against, or a review of, a decision made by another Judicial Commissioner, and any action to take as a result, only where the Investigatory Powers Commissioner is unable or unavailable to exercise the function for any reason. Subsection (8)(b) does not apply to any function of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner mentioned in subsection (8A). Subsection (8) does not apply to the function of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner of making an appointment under subsection (6A). Where there are two Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioners, the power in subsection (8)(a) may, in particular, be used to delegate to one Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner the exercise of the function of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner of deciding— an appeal against, or a review of, a decision made by the other Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner, and any action to take as a result. The delegation under subsection (8) to any extent of functions by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner does not prevent the exercise of the functions to that extent by that Commissioner. the exercise of a function of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner mentioned in subsection (8A)(d) is delegated to a Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner in accordance with subsection (8)(a), and the Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner decides the appeal or review (and any action to take as a result), no further appeal, or request for a further review, may be made to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner in relation to the decision of the Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner. Any function exercisable by a Judicial Commissioner or any description of Judicial Commissioners is exercisable by any of the Judicial Commissioners or (as the case may be) any of the Judicial Commissioners of that description. Subsection (11) does not apply to— any function conferred on the Investigatory Powers Commissioner by name (except so far as its exercise by any of the Judicial Commissioners or any description of Judicial Commissioners is permitted by a delegation under subsection (8)), or any function conferred on, or delegated under subsection (8) to, any other particular named Judicial Commissioner. References in any enactment— to a Judicial Commissioner are to be read as including the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, and to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner are to be read— so far as necessary for the purposes of subsection (8)(a), as references to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or any Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner, and so far as necessary for the purposes of subsection (8)(b), as references to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or any other Judicial Commissioner. In this section a reference to deciding an appeal against, or a review of, a decision made by a Judicial Commissioner includes a reference to deciding whether to approve a decision that the Judicial Commissioner has refused to approve. Subject as follows, each Judicial Commissioner holds and vacates office in accordance with the Commissioner's terms and conditions of appointment. Each Judicial Commissioner is to be appointed for a term of three years. A person who ceases to be a Judicial Commissioner (otherwise than under subsection (5)) may be re-appointed under section 227(1). A Judicial Commissioner may not, subject to subsection (5), be removed from office before the end of the term for which the Commissioner is appointed unless a resolution approving the removal has been passed by each House of Parliament. A Judicial Commissioner may be removed from office by the Prime Minister if, after the appointment of the Commissioner— a bankruptcy order is made against the Commissioner or the Commissioner's estate is sequestrated or the Commissioner makes a composition or arrangement with, or grants a trust deed for, the Commissioner's creditors, any of the following orders is made against the Commissioner— a disqualification order under the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 or the Company Directors Disqualification (Northern Ireland) Order 2002, an order under section 429(2)(b) of the Insolvency Act 1986 (failure to pay under county court administration order), an order under section 429(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986 (disabilities on revocation of county court administration order), the Commissioner's disqualification undertaking is accepted under section 7 or 8 of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986 or under the Company Directors Disqualification (Northern Ireland) Order 2002, or the Commissioner is convicted in the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man of an offence and receives a sentence of imprisonment (whether suspended or not). A person ceases to be a Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner if— the person ceases to be a Judicial Commissioner, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner removes the person from being a Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner, or the person resigns as a Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner. The power in subsection (2) is exercisable where the Investigatory Powers Commissioner and the Secretary of State consider that— as a result of exceptional circumstances, there is a shortage of persons able to carry out Judicial Commissioner functions, and the power in subsection (2) needs to be exercised in order to deal with that shortage. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may appoint one or more persons to carry out Judicial Commissioner functions. A person appointed under subsection (2) is referred to in this section as a “temporary Judicial Commissioner”. A temporary Judicial Commissioner may be appointed under subsection (2) for one or more terms not exceeding six months each and not exceeding three years in total. As soon as practicable after the appointment of any temporary Judicial Commissioner, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must notify the following persons of the appointment— the Prime Minister; the Scottish Ministers; the Lord Chancellor; the Lord Chief Justice of England and Wales; the Lord President of the Court of Session; A reference to a Judicial Commissioner in any enactment (including this Act) is to be read (so far as the context allows) as referring also to a temporary Judicial Commissioner. But subsections (1) and (4) to (6) of section 227 and section 228(2) (appointment requirements etc) do not apply in relation to temporary Judicial Commissioners. In this section “Judicial Commissioner functions” means the functions conferred on Judicial Commissioners by any enactment (including this Act). The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must keep under review (including by way of audit, inspection and investigation) the exercise by public authorities of statutory functions relating to— the interception of communications, the acquisition or retention of communications data, the acquisition of secondary data or related systems data under Chapter 1 of Part 2 or Chapter 1 of Part 6, or equipment interference. Such statutory functions include, in particular, functions relating to the disclosure, retention or other use of— any content of communications intercepted by an interception authorised or required by a warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 2 or Chapter 1 of Part 6, acquired or retained communications data, data acquired as mentioned in subsection (1)(c), or communications, equipment data or other information acquired by means of equipment interference. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must keep under review (including by way of audit, inspection and investigation)— the acquisition, retention, use or disclosure of bulk personal datasets by an intelligence service, the giving and operation of notices under section 252 (national security notices), the exercise of functions by virtue of sections 1 to 4 of the Prisons (Interference with Wireless Telegraphy) Act 2012, the exercise of functions by virtue of Part 2 or 3 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (surveillance, covert human intelligence sources and investigation of electronic data protected by encryption etc.), the adequacy of the arrangements by virtue of which the duties imposed by section 55 of that Act are sought to be discharged, the exercise of functions by virtue of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000 (2000 asp 11) (surveillance and covert human intelligence sources), the exercise of functions under Part 3 of the Police Act 1997 (authorisation of action in respect of property), the exercise by the Secretary of State of functions under sections 5 to 7 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (warrants for interference with wireless telegraphy, entry and interference with property etc.), and the exercise by the Scottish Ministers (by virtue of provision made under section 63 of the Scotland Act 1998) of functions under sections 5 and 6(3) and (4) of the Act of 1994. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must, in accordance with the Agreement between the Government of the United Kingdom and the Government of the United States of America on access to electronic data for the purpose of countering serious crime dated 3rd October 2019, keep under review the compliance by public authorities with the terms of that Agreement. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must keep under review (including by way of audit, inspection and investigation) the process operated by GCHQ for determining whether information about vulnerabilities in technology should be disclosed. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must keep under review (including by way of audit, inspection and investigation) compliance by the persons mentioned in subsection (3D) with “The Principles Relating to the Detention and Interviewing of Detainees Overseas and the Passing and Receipt of Intelligence Relating to Detainees”, as published on 18th July 2019. Those persons are— members and civilian staff of the metropolitan police force who are carrying out activities to which a collaboration agreement made under section 22A of the Police Act 1996 relating to counter-terrorism activities applies, and officers of the National Crime Agency. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must keep under review (including by way of audit, inspection and investigation) compliance by any part of His Majesty’s forces, or by any part of the Ministry of Defence, with policies governing— the use of surveillance outside the United Kingdom, and the use and conduct of covert human intelligence sources outside the United Kingdom, (whether or not authorised under the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000). But the Investigatory Powers Commissioner is not to keep under review— the exercise of any function of a relevant Minister to make subordinate legislation, the exercise of any function by a judicial authority, the exercise of any function by virtue of Part 3 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 which is exercisable with the permission of a judicial authority, the exercise of any function which— is for the purpose of obtaining information or taking possession of any document or other property in connection with communications stored in or by a telecommunication system, or is carried out in accordance with an order made by a judicial authority for that purpose, and is not exercisable by virtue of this Act, the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000, the Crime (Overseas Production Orders) Act 2019 or an enactment mentioned in subsection (3)(c), (h), (i) or (j) above, the exercise of any function where the conduct concerned is— conduct authorised by section 45, 47 or 50, or conduct authorised by section 46 which is not conduct by or on behalf of an intercepting authority (within the meaning given by section 18(1)), or the exercise of any function which is subject to review by the Information Commissioner or the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for Northern Ireland. In keeping matters under review in accordance with subsection (3)(e), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must, in particular, keep under review the exercise of the power to grant or renew authorisations under section 29B of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000. In keeping under review the exercise of the power mentioned in subsection (4A), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must, in particular, keep under review whether public authorities are complying with any requirements imposed on them by virtue of Part 2 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 in relation to juvenile criminal conduct authorisations and vulnerable adult criminal conduct authorisations. For the purposes of subsection (4B)— “a juvenile criminal conduct authorisation” is an authorisation under section 29B of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 where the covert human intelligence source to whom the authorisation relates is under the age of 18; and “a vulnerable adult criminal conduct authorisation” is an authorisation under section 29B of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 where the covert human intelligence source to whom the authorisation relates is a vulnerable adult within the meaning of section 29D(3) of that Act. In keeping matters under review in accordance with this section, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must, in particular, keep under review the operation of safeguards to protect privacy. In exercising functions under this Act, a Judicial Commissioner must not act in a way which the Commissioner considers to be contrary to the public interest or prejudicial to— national security, the prevention or detection of serious crime, or the economic well-being of the United Kingdom. A Judicial Commissioner must, in particular, ensure that the Commissioner does not— jeopardise the success of an intelligence or security operation or a law enforcement operation, compromise the safety or security of those involved, or unduly impede the operational effectiveness of an intelligence service, a police force, a government department or Her Majesty's forces. Subsections (6) and (7) do not apply in relation to any of the following functions of a Judicial Commissioner— whether to serve, vary or cancel a monetary penalty notice under section 7 or paragraph 16 of Schedule 1, a notice of intent under paragraph 4 of that Schedule or an information notice under Part 2 of that Schedule, or the contents of any such notice, deciding whether to approve the issue, modification or renewal of a warrant, deciding whether to direct the destruction of material or how otherwise to deal with the situation where— a warrant issued, or modification made, for what was considered to be an urgent need is not approved, or an item subject to legal privilege is retained, following its examination, for purposes other than the destruction of the item, deciding whether to— approve the grant, modification or renewal of an authorisation, or quash or cancel an authorisation or renewal, deciding whether to approve— the giving , varying or renewal of a retention notice under Part 4 or a notice under section 252 or 253, or the giving of a notice under section 90(10)(b) or 257(9)(b), participating in a review under section 90 or 257, deciding whether— to approve the use of criteria under section 154(2)(a), subsection 154(8) applies for the purposes of subsection 154(6) and (7), the relevant condition is met for the purposes of subsection 154A(3)(a). to approve the use of criteria under section 195(2)(a), subsection 195(8) applies for the purposes of subsection 195(6) and (7), the relevant condition is met for the purposes of subsection 195A(3)(a). deciding whether to approve an authorisation under section 219(3)(b), deciding whether to give approval under section 222(4), deciding whether to approve the giving or varying of a direction under section 225(3), making a decision under section 231(1), deciding whether to order the destruction of records under section 103 of the Police Act 1997, section 37 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 or section 15 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000, deciding whether to make an order under section 103(6) of the Police Act 1997 (order enabling the taking of action to retrieve anything left on property in pursuance of an authorisation), an appeal against, or a review of, a decision by another Judicial Commissioner, and Subsections (6) and (7) also do not apply in relation to the functions of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner under section 60A or 65(3B). “bulk personal dataset” is to be read in accordance with section 199 (and includes a third party bulk personal dataset (see section 226E)), “equipment data” has the same meaning as in Part 5 (see section 100), “judicial authority” means a judge, court or tribunal or any person exercising the functions of a judge, court or tribunal (but does not include a Judicial Commissioner), “police force” has the same meaning as in Part 2 (see section 60(1)), “related systems data” has the meaning given by section 15(6), “relevant Minister” means a Minister of the Crown or government department, the Scottish Ministers, the Welsh Ministers or a Northern Ireland department, “secondary data” has the same meaning as in Part 2 (see section 16). So far as directed to do so by the Prime Minister and subject to subsection (2), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must keep under review the carrying out of any aspect of the functions of— an intelligence service, a head of an intelligence service, ... any part of Her Majesty's forces, or of the Ministry of Defence, so far as engaging in intelligence activities , or any public authority not mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (c), or any part of such an authority, so far as engaging in intelligence activities. Subsection (1) does not apply in relation to anything which is required to be kept under review by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner under section 229. The Prime Minister may give a direction under this section at the request of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or the Intelligence and Security Committee of Parliament or otherwise. The Prime Minister must publish, in a manner which the Prime Minister considers appropriate, any direction under this section (and any revocation of such a direction) except so far as it appears to the Prime Minister that such publication would be contrary to the public interest or prejudicial to— the prevention or detection of serious crime, the economic well-being of the United Kingdom, or the continued discharge of the functions of any public authority whose activities include activities that are subject to review by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must inform a person of any relevant error relating to that person of which the Commissioner is aware if the Commissioner considers that— the error is a serious error, and it is in the public interest for the person to be informed of the error. In making a decision under subsection (1)(a), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner may not decide that an error is a serious error unless the Commissioner considers that the error has caused significant prejudice or harm to the person concerned. Accordingly, the fact that there has been a breach of a person's Convention rights (within the meaning of the Human Rights Act 1998) is not sufficient by itself for an error to be a serious error. In making a decision under subsection (1)(b), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must, in particular, consider— the seriousness of the error and its effect on the person concerned, and the extent to which disclosing the error would be contrary to the public interest or prejudicial to— the continued discharge of the functions of any of the intelligence services. Before making a decision under subsection (1)(a) or (b), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must ask the public authority which has made the error to make submissions to the Commissioner about the matters concerned. When informing a person under subsection (1) of an error, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must— inform the person of any rights that the person may have to apply to the Investigatory Powers Tribunal, and provide such details of the error as the Commissioner considers to be necessary for the exercise of those rights, having regard in particular to the extent to which disclosing the details would be contrary to the public interest or prejudicial to anything falling within subsection (4)(b)(i) to (iv). The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may not inform the person to whom it relates of a relevant error except as provided by this section. A report under section 234(1) must include information about— the number of relevant errors of which the Investigatory Powers Commissioner has become aware during the year to which the report relates, the number of relevant errors which the Commissioner has decided during that year were serious errors, and the number of persons informed under subsection (1) during that year. In this section “relevant error” means an error— by a public authority in complying with any requirements which are imposed on it by virtue of this Act or any other enactment and which are subject to review by a Judicial Commissioner, and of a description identified for this purpose in a relevant code of practice, and the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must keep under review the definition of “relevant error”. In subsection (9) “relevant code of practice” means a code of practice under— Schedule 7, the Police Act 1997, the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, or the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000. A Judicial Commissioner must give the Investigatory Powers Tribunal all such documents, information and other assistance (including the Commissioner's opinion as to any issue falling to be determined by the Tribunal) as the Tribunal may require— in connection with the investigation of any matter by the Tribunal, or otherwise for the purposes of the Tribunal's consideration or determination of any matter. A Judicial Commissioner may provide advice or information to any public authority or other person in relation to matters for which a Judicial Commissioner is responsible. But a Judicial Commissioner must consult the Secretary of State before providing any advice or information under subsection (2) if it appears to the Commissioner that providing the advice or information might be contrary to the public interest or prejudicial to— In addition to consulting the Secretary of State under subsection (3), the Judicial Commissioner must also consult the Scottish Ministers if it appears to the Commissioner that providing the advice or information might be prejudicial to— the prevention or detection of serious crime by a Scottish public authority, or the continued discharge of any devolved functions of a Scottish public authority whose activities include activities that are subject to review by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. In subsection (4)— “devolved function” means a function that does not relate to reserved matters (within the meaning of the Scotland Act 1998), and “Scottish public authority” has the same meaning as in the Scotland Act 1998. Subsections (3) and (4) do not apply to any advice or information provided under subsection (2) to the Investigatory Powers Tribunal. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner and the other Judicial Commissioners have the functions that are exercisable by them by virtue of any other Part of this Act or by virtue of any other enactment. In Part 3 of the Police Act 1997 (authorisations of action in respect of property: approval by Commissioners)— in sections 96(1), 103(7)(b) and (8), 104(3) to (8) and 105(1) and (2) for “Chief Commissioner” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”, in sections 96(1), 97(1)(a) and 103(1), (2), (4) and (5)(b) for “a Commissioner appointed under section 91(1)(b)” substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner ”, in sections 96(4), 97(4) and (6) and 103(3) and (6) for “a Commissioner” substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner ”, in section 103(7) for “a Commissioner” substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner (other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner) ”, in section 104(1) for “Chief Commissioner” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner (except where the original decision was made by that Commissioner) ”, in section 104(3) and (8)(a) for “the Commissioner” substitute “ the Judicial Commissioner concerned ”, in section 105(1)(a)(ii) and (b)(ii) for “the Commissioner” substitute “ the Judicial Commissioner ”, and in sections 97(5) and 103(9) for “A Commissioner” substitute “ A Judicial Commissioner ”. In Part 2 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (surveillance and covert human intelligence sources: approval by Commissioners)— in sections 35(1) and (4), 36(2)(a) and (5) and 37(2) to (6) and (8) for “an ordinary Surveillance Commissioner”, wherever it appears, substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner ”, in sections 35(2)(b), 36(6)(g), 37(9)(b), 38(1) and (4) to (6) and 39(1), (2) and (4) and in the heading of section 39 for “Chief Surveillance Commissioner”, wherever it appears, substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”, in sections 35(3)(a) and 36(4)(a) and (b) for “Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Judicial Commissioner ”, in section 37(8)(b) for “Chief Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner (if he is not that Commissioner) ”, in section 38(1)(a) for “an ordinary Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner (other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner) ”, in sections 38(5)(b) and 39(1)(b) for “ordinary Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Judicial Commissioner ”, and in the heading of section 38 for “Surveillance Commissioners” substitute “ Judicial Commissioners ”. In Part 3 of the Act of 2000 (investigation of electronic data protected by encryption etc.)— in section 51(6) (notification to Intelligence Services Commissioner or Chief Surveillance Commissioner of certain directions relating to the disclosure of a key to protected information) for the words from “done so” to the end substitute “ done so to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”, in section 54(9) (tipping-off: protected disclosures to a relevant Commissioner) for “relevant Commissioner” substitute “ Judicial Commissioner ”, in section 55(7) (court to have regard to opinion of a relevant Commissioner in certain circumstances relating to a disclosed key) for “relevant Commissioner” substitute “ Judicial Commissioner or the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for Northern Ireland ”, and omit sections 54(11) and 55(8) (definitions of “relevant Commissioner”). In the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000 (2000 asp 11) (surveillance and covert human intelligence sources: approval by Commissioners and review by the Chief Commissioner)— in sections 13(1) and (4), 14(1)(a) and (4) and 15(1) to (5) and (7) for “an ordinary Surveillance Commissioner”, wherever it appears, substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner ”, in sections 13(2)(b), 15(8)(b), 16(1) and (4) to (6) and 17 and in the heading of section 17 for “Chief Surveillance Commissioner”, wherever it appears, substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”, in sections 13(3)(a) and 14(3)(a) and (b) for “Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Judicial Commissioner ”, in section 15(7)(b) for “Chief Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner (if the Commissioner is not that Commissioner) ”, in section 16(1)(a) for “an ordinary Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner (other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner) ”, in sections 16(5)(b) and 17(1)(b) for “ordinary Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Judicial Commissioner ”, and in section 16(5) for “ordinary Surveillance Commissioner's” substitute “Judicial Commissioner's”. In Part 2 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Covert Human Intelligence Sources: Relevant Sources) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/2788) (notification of certain authorisations to, and approval of certain authorisations by, ordinary Surveillance Commissioner)— in article 4(1), for “an ordinary Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner ”, in article 5(8) and the heading of Part 2, for “ordinary Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Judicial Commissioner ”, in article 6(1) and (3) for “Chief Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”, in article 6(1) for “an ordinary Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner (other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner) ”, and in the heading of article 6 for “Surveillance Commissioners” substitute “ Judicial Commissioners ”.

The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the end of each calendar year, make a report to the Prime Minister about the carrying out of the functions of the Judicial Commissioners. A report under subsection (1) must, in particular, include— statistics on the use of the investigatory powers which are subject to review by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner (including the number of warrants or authorisations issued, given, considered or approved during the year), information about the results of such use (including its impact), information about the use of the power to grant or renew authorisations under section 29B of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, information about the operation of the safeguards conferred by this Act in relation to items subject to legal privilege, confidential journalistic material and sources of journalistic information, information about the following kinds of warrants issued, considered or approved during the year— targeted interception warrants or targeted examination warrants of the kind referred to in section 17(2), targeted equipment interference warrants relating to matters within paragraph (b), (c), (e), (f), (g) or (h) of section 101(1), and targeted examination warrants under Part 5 relating to matters within any of paragraphs (b) to (e) of section 101(2), information about the operational purposes specified during the year in warrants issued under Part 6 or 7, the information on errors required by virtue of section 231(8), information about the work of the Technology Advisory Panel, information about the funding, staffing and other resources of the Judicial Commissioners, and details of public engagements undertaken by the Judicial Commissioners or their staff. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must, at any time, make any report to the Prime Minister which has been requested by the Prime Minister. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may, at any time, make any such report to the Prime Minister, on any matter relating to the functions of the Judicial Commissioners, as the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers appropriate. A report under subsection (1) or (4) may, in particular, include such recommendations as the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers appropriate about any matter relating to the functions of the Judicial Commissioners. On receiving a report from the Investigatory Powers Commissioner under subsection (1), the Prime Minister must— publish the report, and lay a copy of the published report before Parliament together with a statement as to whether any part of the report has been excluded from publication under subsection (7). The Prime Minister may, after consultation with the Investigatory Powers Commissioner and (so far as the report relates to functions under Part 3 of the Police Act 1997) the Scottish Ministers, exclude from publication any part of a report under subsection (1) if, in the opinion of the Prime Minister, the publication of that part would be contrary to the public interest or prejudicial to— The Prime Minister must send a copy of every report and statement as laid before Parliament under subsection (6)(b) to the Scottish Ministers and the Scottish Ministers must lay the copy report and statement before the Scottish Parliament. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may publish any report under subsection (3) or (4), or any part of such a report, if requested to do so by the Prime Minister. Subsection (11) applies if the Prime Minister receives a report from the Investigatory Powers Commissioner under subsection (1) or (4) which relates to an investigation, inspection or audit carried out by the Commissioner following a decision to do so of which the Intelligence and Security Committee of Parliament was informed under section 236(2). The Prime Minister must send to the Intelligence and Security Committee of Parliament a copy of the report so far as it relates to— the investigation, inspection or audit concerned, and the functions of the Committee falling within section 2 of the Justice and Security Act 2013. A Judicial Commissioner may carry out such investigations, inspections and audits as the Commissioner considers appropriate for the purposes of the Commissioner's functions. Every relevant person must disclose or provide to a Judicial Commissioner all such documents and information as the Commissioner may require for the purposes of the Commissioner's functions. Every relevant person must provide a Judicial Commissioner with such assistance as the Commissioner may require in carrying out any investigation, inspection or audit for the purposes of the Commissioner's functions. Assistance under subsection (3) may, in particular, include such access to apparatus, systems or other facilities or services as the Judicial Commissioner concerned may require in carrying out any investigation, inspection or audit for the purposes of the Commissioner's functions. A public authority may report to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner any refusal by a telecommunications operator or postal operator to comply with any requirements imposed by virtue of this Act. A public authority, telecommunications operator or postal operator must report to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner any relevant error (within the meaning given by section 231(9)) of which it is aware. In this section “relevant person” means— any person who holds, or has held, an office, rank or position with a public authority, any telecommunications operator or postal operator who is, has been or may become subject to a requirement imposed by virtue of this Act, any person who is, has been or may become subject to a requirement to provide assistance by virtue of section 41, 43, 126, 128, 149, 168, 170 or 190, or any person to whom a notice is given under section 49 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000. This section applies where a telecommunications operator would, but for a relevant restriction, be required by regulation 5A(2) of the 2003 Regulations to notify a personal data breach to the Information Commissioner. The telecommunications operator must report the personal data breach to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. Where a telecommunications operator reports a personal data breach to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner under subsection (2), a Judicial Commissioner must disclose information about the breach to the Information Commissioner. Where a Judicial Commissioner discloses information about a personal data breach to the Information Commissioner under subsection (3), the Information Commissioner must— consider whether the breach is serious, and if the Information Commissioner considers that the breach is serious, notify the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must inform an individual of any personal data breach relating to that individual of which the Commissioner is notified under subsection (4)(b) if the Commissioner considers that it is in the public interest for the individual to be informed of the breach. In making a decision under subsection (5), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must, in particular, consider— the seriousness of the breach and its effect on the individual concerned, and the extent to which disclosing the breach would be contrary to the public interest or prejudicial to— Before making a decision under subsection (5), the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must ask— the Secretary of State, and any public authority that the Investigatory Powers Commissioner considers appropriate, to make submissions to the Commissioner about the matters concerned. When informing an individual under subsection (5) of a breach, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must— inform the individual of any rights that the individual may have to apply to the Investigatory Powers Tribunal in relation to the breach, and provide such details of the breach as the Commissioner considers to be necessary for the exercise of those rights, having regard in particular to the extent to which disclosing the details would be contrary to the public interest or prejudicial to anything falling within subsection (6)(b)(i) to (iv). The Investigatory Powers Commissioner may not inform the individual to whom it relates of a personal data breach notified to the Commissioner under subsection (4)(b) except as provided by this section. For the purposes of this section, a personal data breach is serious if the breach is likely to result in a high risk to the rights and freedoms of individuals. “2003 Regulations” means the Privacy and Electronic Communications (EC Directive) Regulations 2003 (S.I. 2003/2426); “personal data breach” has the same meaning as in the 2003 Regulations (see regulation 2(1) of those Regulations); “relevant restriction” means any of the following— section 57(1) (duty not to make unauthorised disclosures) (including as applied by section 156); section 132(1) (duty not to make unauthorised disclosures) (including as applied by section 197); section 174(1) (offence of making unauthorised disclosure), (read with regulation 29(1)(a)(i) of the 2003 Regulations). Subsection (2) applies if the Intelligence and Security Committee of Parliament refers a matter to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner with a view to the Commissioner carrying out an investigation, inspection or audit into it. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must inform the Intelligence and Security Committee of Parliament of the Commissioner's decision as to whether to carry out the investigation, inspection or audit. A disclosure of information to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or another Judicial Commissioner for the purposes of any function of the Commissioner does not breach— an obligation of confidence owed by the person making the disclosure, or any other restriction on the disclosure of information (whether imposed by virtue of this Act or otherwise). But subsection (1) does not apply to a disclosure, in contravention of any provisions of the data protection legislation, of personal data which is not exempt from those provisions. In this section, “the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act). There is to be paid to the Judicial Commissioners out of money provided by Parliament such remuneration and allowances as the Treasury may determine. The Secretary of State must, after consultation with the Investigatory Powers Commissioner and subject to the approval of the Treasury as to numbers of staff, provide the Judicial Commissioners with— such staff, and such accommodation, equipment and other facilities and services, as the Secretary of State considers necessary for the carrying out of the Commissioners' functions. The Scottish Ministers may pay to the Judicial Commissioners such allowances as the Scottish Ministers consider appropriate in respect of the exercise by the Commissioners of functions which relate to the exercise by Scottish public authorities of devolved functions. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner or any other Judicial Commissioner may, to such extent as the Commissioner concerned may decide, delegate the exercise of functions of that Commissioner to any member of staff of the Judicial Commissioners or any other person acting on behalf of the Commissioners. Subsection (5) does not apply to— the function of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner of making a recommendation under section 227(4)(e) or making an appointment under section 227(6A), 228A(2) or 247(1), any function which falls within section 229(8), or any function under section 58(4) or 133(3) of authorising a disclosure, but, subject to this and the terms of the delegation, does include functions which have been delegated to a Judicial Commissioner by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. The delegation under subsection (5) to any extent of functions by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or any other Judicial Commissioner does not prevent the exercise of the functions to that extent by the Commissioner concerned. The Secretary of State may by regulations modify the functions of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or any other Judicial Commissioner. But such regulations may not modify any function conferred by virtue of this Act on a Judicial Commissioner to approve, quash or cancel— an authorisation or warrant, or the variation or renewal of an authorisation or warrant. The power to make regulations under this section (including that power as extended by section 267(1)(c)) may, in particular, be exercised by modifying any provision made by or under an enactment (including this Act). The offices of the following are abolished— the Interception of Communications Commissioner, the Intelligence Services Commissioner, the Chief Surveillance Commissioner, the other Surveillance Commissioners, the Scottish Chief Surveillance Commissioner, and the other Scottish Surveillance Commissioners. Accordingly, the following enactments are repealed— sections 57 and 58 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (the Interception of Communications Commissioner), sections 59, 59A and 60 of that Act (the Intelligence Services Commissioner), sections 62 and 63 of that Act and sections 91 and 107 of the Police Act 1997 (the Surveillance Commissioners), and sections 2(1) to (9), 3 and 4 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000 (2000 asp 11) (the Scottish Surveillance Commissioners). The Secretary of State may by regulations, with the consent of the Northern Ireland Assembly, provide for the abolition of the office of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for Northern Ireland. The power to make regulations under subsection (3) (including that power as extended by section 267(1)(c)) may, in particular, be exercised by modifying any provision made by or under an enactment (including this Act). Regulations made by virtue of subsection (4) may, in particular, repeal— section 61 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for Northern Ireland), and the words “or the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for Northern Ireland” in section 229(4)(f) of this Act. “the Chief Surveillance Commissioner” means the Chief Commissioner appointed under section 91(1)(a) of the Police Act 1997, “the other Scottish Surveillance Commissioners” means— the Surveillance Commissioners appointed under section 2(1)(b) of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000, and the Assistant Surveillance Commissioners appointed under section 3 of that Act, “the other Surveillance Commissioners” means— the Commissioners appointed under section 91(1)(b) of the Police Act 1997, and the Assistant Surveillance Commissioners appointed under section 63(1) of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, “the Scottish Chief Surveillance Commissioner” means the Chief Surveillance Commissioner appointed under section 2(1)(a) of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000. Schedule 7 (codes of practice) has effect. After section 67 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 insert— A relevant person may appeal on a point of law against any determination of the Tribunal of a kind mentioned in section 68(4) or any decision of the Tribunal of a kind mentioned in section 68(4C). Before making a determination or decision which might be the subject of an appeal under this section, the Tribunal must specify the court which is to have jurisdiction to hear the appeal (the “relevant appellate court”). This court is whichever of the following courts appears to the Tribunal to be the most appropriate— the Court of Appeal in England and Wales, the Court of Session. The Secretary of State may by regulations, with the consent of the Northern Ireland Assembly, amend subsection (3) so as to add the Court of Appeal in Northern Ireland to the list of courts mentioned there. The Secretary of State may by regulations specify criteria to be applied by the Tribunal in making decisions under subsection (2) as to the identity of the relevant appellate court. An appeal under this section— is to be heard by the relevant appellate court, but may not be made without the leave of the Tribunal or, if that is refused, of the relevant appellate court. The Tribunal or relevant appellate court must not grant leave to appeal unless it considers that— the appeal would raise an important point of principle or practice, or there is another compelling reason for granting leave. “relevant appellate court” has the meaning given by subsection (2), “relevant person”, in relation to any proceedings, complaint or reference, means the complainant or— in the case of proceedings, the respondent, in the case of a complaint, the person complained against, and in the case of a reference, any public authority to whom the reference relates. In section 67 of that Act (no appeal from the Investigatory Powers Tribunal except as provided by order of the Secretary of State)— in subsection (8) for “Except to such extent as the Secretary of State may by order otherwise provide,” substitute “ Except as provided by virtue of section 67A, ”, and omit subsections (9) to (12). After section 68(4) of that Act (requirement to give notice of determinations to complainant) insert— Where the Tribunal make any determination of a kind mentioned in subsection (4), they must also give notice to— A notice under subsection (4A) is (subject to any rules made by virtue of section 69(2)(j)) to be confined, as the case may be, to either— a statement that they have made a determination in the complainant's favour, or a statement that no determination has been made in the complainant's favour. Where the Tribunal make any decision which— is a final decision of a preliminary issue in relation to any proceedings, complaint or reference brought before or made to them, and is neither a determination of a kind mentioned in subsection (4) nor a decision relating to a procedural matter, they must give notice of that decision to every person who would be entitled to receive notice of the determination under subsection (4) or (4A). A notice under subsection (4C) is (subject to any rules made by virtue of section 69(2)(i) or (j)) to be confined to a statement as to what the decision is. Subsections (4C) and (4D) do not apply so far as— the Tribunal are prevented from giving notice of a decision to a person by rules made by virtue of section 69(4) or decide under such rules not to give such a notice, or the giving of such a notice is inconsistent with such rules. In section 69(2) of that Act (Tribunal rules)— in paragraph (i), after “section 68(4)” insert “ or notice under section 68(4C) ”, and after paragraph (i), insert ; require information about any determination, award, order or other decision made by the Tribunal in relation to any proceedings, complaint or reference to be provided (in addition to any statement under section 68(4A) or notice under section 68(4C)) to— in the case of a reference, any public authority to whom the reference relates, or to the person representing their interests; make provision about the making and determination of applications to the Tribunal for permission to appeal In section 78 of that Act (orders, regulations and rules)— in subsection (4), after “applies” insert “ (other than regulations under section 67A(5)) ”, and after subsection (4) insert— A statutory instrument containing regulations under section 67A(5) may not be made unless a draft of the instrument has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament. In section 65 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (the Investigatory Powers Tribunal)— in subsection (2)(c) (jurisdiction of the Investigatory Powers Tribunal where possible detriment due to evidential bar) for “section 17” substitute “ section 56 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”, in subsection (5) (conduct in relation to which the Tribunal has jurisdiction) after paragraph (b) insert— conduct for or in connection with the obtaining of secondary data from communications transmitted by means of such a service or system; the issue, modification, renewal or service of a warrant under Part 2 or Chapter 1 of Part 6 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (interception of communications); in subsection (5) for paragraph (c) substitute— conduct of a kind which may be permitted or required by an authorisation or notice under Part 3 of that Act or a warrant under Chapter 2 of Part 6 of that Act (acquisition of communications data); the giving of an authorisation or notice under Part 3 of that Act or the issue, modification, renewal or service of a warrant under Chapter 2 of Part 6 of that Act; conduct of a kind which may be required or permitted by a retention notice under Part 4 of that Act (retention of communications data) but excluding any conduct which is subject to review by the Information Commissioner; the giving or varying of a retention notice under that Part of that Act; conduct of a kind which may be required or permitted by a warrant under Part 5 or Chapter 3 of Part 6 of that Act (equipment interference); the issue, modification, renewal or service of a warrant under Part 5 or Chapter 3 of Part 6 of that Act; the issue, modification, renewal or service of a warrant under Part 7 of that Act (bulk personal dataset warrants); the giving of an authorisation under section 219(3)(b) (authorisation for the retention, or retention and examination, of material following expiry of bulk personal dataset warrant); the giving or varying of a direction under section 225 of that Act (directions where no bulk personal dataset warrant required); conduct of a kind which may be required by a notice under section 252 or 253 of that Act (national security or technical capability notices); the giving or varying of such a notice; the giving of an authorisation under section 152(5)(c) or 193(5)(c) of that Act (certain authorisations to examine intercepted content or protected material); any failure to— cancel a warrant under Part 2, 5, 6 or 7 of that Act or an authorisation under Part 3 of that Act; cancel a notice under Part 3 of that Act; revoke a notice under Part 4, or section 252 or 253, of that Act; or revoke a direction under section 225 of that Act; any conduct in connection with any conduct falling within paragraph (c), (czb), (czd) or (czi); in subsection (6) (limitation for certain purposes of what is conduct falling within subsection (5))— after “on behalf of” insert “ an immigration officer or ”, and after paragraph (d) insert— the Competition and Markets Authority; after subsection (6) insert— Subsection (6) does not apply to anything mentioned in paragraph (d) or (f) of subsection (5) which also falls within paragraph (czd) of that subsection. in subsection (7) after “if” insert “ it is conduct of a public authority and ”, in subsection (7ZA) (role for Tribunal where judicial authority involved) for “under section 23A or 32A” substitute “ by a Judicial Commissioner or under section 32A of this Act or section 75 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”, after subsection (7ZA) insert— For the purposes of this section conduct also takes place in challengeable circumstances if it is, or purports to be, conduct falling within subsection (5)(bb), (cza), (czc), (cze), (czf), (czg), (czh), (czj), (czk) or (czl) or (so far as the conduct is, or purports to be, the giving of a notice under section 49) subsection (5)(e). in subsection (8) (matters that may be challenged before the Tribunal) for paragraphs (a) and (b) substitute— a warrant under Part 2, 5, 6 or 7 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016; an authorisation or notice under Part 3 of that Act; a retention notice under Part 4 of that Act; a direction under section 225 of that Act; a notice under section 252 or 253 of that Act; after subsection (9) insert— In subsection (5)(ba) the reference to obtaining secondary data from communications transmitted by means of a postal service or telecommunication system is to be read in accordance with section 16 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016. In section 67(7) of the Act of 2000 (powers of the Tribunal)— after paragraph (a) insert— an order quashing or cancelling a notice under Part 3 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 or a retention notice under Part 4 of that Act; an order quashing or revoking a direction under section 225 of that Act; an order quashing or revoking a notice under section 252 or 253 of that Act; in paragraph (aa) for “section 23A or 32A” substitute “ section 75 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 or section 32A of this Act ”, and in paragraph (b)(i) after “authorisation” insert “ or by a notice under Part 3 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 68(5)(b) of the Act of 2000 (report of certain findings to the Prime Minister) after “permission” insert “ , or notice under Part 4 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 or under section 252 or 253 of that Act or direction under section 225 of that Act, ”. In section 68(6)(b) of the Act of 2000 (disclosures etc. to the Tribunal to enable the exercise of functions conferred by or under that Act) after “this Act” insert “ or the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 68(7) of the Act of 2000 (persons subject to duty to co-operate with the Tribunal)— in paragraph (e)— for “section 11” substitute “ section 41, 126, 149, 168 or 190 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”, and for “an interception warrant” substitute “ a warrant ”, in paragraph (f) for “section 12” substitute “ section 252 or 253 of that Act ”, for paragraphs (g) and (h) substitute— every person by or to whom an authorisation under Part 3 of that Act has been granted; every person to whom a notice under Part 3 of that Act has been given; every person to whom a retention notice under Part 4 of that Act or a notice under section 252 or 253 of that Act has been given; in paragraph (k), for the words from “an authorisation” to the end substitute — an authorisation under Part 3 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, Part 2 of this Act or Part 3 of the Police Act 1997, or a warrant under Chapter 2 of Part 6 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016; in paragraph (l) after “authorisation” insert “ or warrant ”, and in paragraph (n) after “(h)” insert “ , (ha) ”. In section 68(8) of the Act of 2000 (meaning of “relevant Commissioner”) for the words from “Interception” to the end substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner or any other Judicial Commissioner or the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for Northern Ireland ”. The Information Commissioner must audit compliance with requirements or restrictions imposed by virtue of Part 4 in relation to the integrity, security or destruction of data retained by virtue of that Part. There is to continue to be a Technical Advisory Board consisting of such number of persons appointed by the Secretary of State as the Secretary of State may by regulations provide. The regulations providing for the membership of the Technical Advisory Board must also make provision which is calculated to ensure— that the membership of the Board includes persons likely effectively to represent the interests of persons on whom obligations may be imposed by virtue of retention notices under Part 4, national security notices under section 252 or technical capability notices under section 253, that the membership of the Board includes persons likely effectively to represent the interests of persons entitled to apply for warrants under Part 2, 5, 6 or 7 or authorisations under Part 3, that such other persons (if any) as the Secretary of State considers appropriate may be appointed to be members of the Board, and that the Board is so constituted as to produce a balance between the representation of the interests mentioned in paragraph (a) and the representation of those mentioned in paragraph (b). Regulations under this section may also make provision about quorum and the filling of vacancies. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must ensure that there is a Technology Advisory Panel to provide advice to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, the Secretary of State and the Scottish Ministers about— the impact of changing technology on the exercise of investigatory powers whose exercise is subject to review by the Commissioner, and the availability and development of techniques to use such powers while minimising interference with privacy. The Technology Advisory Panel must provide advice to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner about such matters falling within subsection (1)(a) or (b) as the Commissioner may direct. Subject to this, the Panel may provide advice to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner about such matters falling within subsection (1)(a) or (b) as it considers appropriate (whether or not requested to do so). The Panel may provide advice to the Secretary of State or the Scottish Ministers about such matters falling within subsection (1)(a) or (b) as it considers appropriate (whether or not requested to do so) but such advice to the Scottish Ministers may only relate to matters for which the Scottish Ministers are responsible. The Panel must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the end of each calendar year, make a report to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner about the carrying out of the functions of the Panel. The Panel must, at the same time, send a copy of the report to the Secretary of State and (so far as relating to matters for which the Scottish Ministers are responsible) the Scottish Ministers. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must appoint such number of persons as members of the Technology Advisory Panel as the Commissioner considers necessary for the carrying out of the functions of the Panel. Subject as follows, each member of the Panel holds and vacates office in accordance with the member's terms and conditions of appointment. A member of the Panel must not act in a way which the member considers to be contrary to the public interest or prejudicial to— A member of the Panel must, in particular, ensure that the member does not— Section 235(2) and (7) (information powers) apply to a member of the Panel as they apply to a Judicial Commissioner. Schedule 8 (which makes provision for the combination of certain warrants and authorisations in a single instrument) has effect. The Secretary of State must ensure that arrangements are in force for securing that telecommunications operators and postal operators receive an appropriate contribution in respect of such of their relevant costs as the Secretary of State considers appropriate. In subsection (1) “relevant costs” means costs incurred, or likely to be incurred, by telecommunications operators and postal operators in complying with this Act. The arrangements may provide for payment of a contribution to be subject to terms and conditions determined by the Secretary of State. Such terms and conditions may, in particular, include a condition on the operator concerned to comply with any audit that may reasonably be required to monitor the claim for costs. The arrangements may provide for the Secretary of State to determine— the scope and extent of the arrangements, and the appropriate level of contribution which should be made in each case. Different levels of contribution may apply for different cases or descriptions of case but the appropriate contribution must never be nil. A retention notice under Part 4 given to a telecommunications operator or a postal operator, or a national security notice under section 252 given to a telecommunications operator, must specify the level or levels of contribution which the Secretary of State has determined should be made in respect of the costs incurred, or likely to be incurred, by the operator as a result of the notice in complying with that Part or (as the case may be) with the national security notice. For the purpose of complying with this section the Secretary of State may make, or arrange for the making of, payments out of money provided by Parliament. The Secretary of State may— develop, provide, maintain or improve, or enter into financial or other arrangements with any person for the development, provision, maintenance or improvement of, such apparatus, systems or other facilities or services as the Secretary of State considers appropriate for enabling or otherwise facilitating compliance by the Secretary of State, another public authority or any other person with this Act. Arrangements falling within subsection (1)(b) may, in particular, include arrangements consisting of the giving of financial assistance by the Secretary of State. Such financial assistance— may, in particular, be given by way of— grant, loan, guarantee or indemnity, investment, or incurring expenditure for the benefit of the person assisted, and may be given subject to terms and conditions determined by the Secretary of State. Terms and conditions imposed by virtue of subsection (3)(b) may include terms and conditions as to repayment with or without interest. The Intelligence Services Act 1994 is amended as follows. In section 3 (the Government Communications Headquarters)— in subsection (1)(a), after “monitor” insert “ , make use of ”, and in the words following subsection (1)(b)(ii), for the words from “or to any other organisation” to the end substitute “ or, in such cases as it considers appropriate, to other organisations or persons, or to the general public, in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. ” In section 5 (warrants: general)— in subsection (2), omit “, subject to subsection (3) below,”, omit subsection (3), and in subsection (3A), after “1989” insert “ , or on the application of the Intelligence Service or GCHQ for the purposes of the exercise of their functions by virtue of section 1(2)(c) or 3(2)(c), ”. The Secretary of State may give any telecommunications operator in the United Kingdom a national security notice under this section if— the Secretary of State considers that the notice is necessary in the interests of national security, the Secretary of State considers that the conduct required by the notice is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, and A “national security notice” is a notice requiring the operator to take such specified steps as the Secretary of State considers necessary in the interests of national security. A national security notice may, in particular, require the operator to whom it is given— to carry out any conduct, including the provision of services or facilities, for the purpose of— facilitating anything done by an intelligence service under any enactment other than this Act, or dealing with an emergency (within the meaning of Part 1 of the Civil Contingencies Act 2004); to provide services or facilities for the purpose of assisting an intelligence service to carry out its functions more securely or more effectively. In a case where— a national security notice would require the taking of any steps, and in the absence of such a notice requiring the taking of those steps, the taking of those steps would be lawful only if a warrant or authorisation under a relevant enactment had been obtained, the notice may require the taking of those steps only if such a warrant or authorisation has been obtained. But the Secretary of State may not give any telecommunications operator a national security notice the main purpose of which is to require the operator to do something for which a warrant or authorisation under a relevant enactment is required. In this section “relevant enactment” means— this Act; the Intelligence Services Act 1994; the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000; A national security notice must specify such period as appears to the Secretary of State to be reasonable as the period within which the steps specified in the notice are to be taken. Conduct required by a national security notice is to be treated as lawful for all purposes (to the extent that it would not otherwise be so treated). Sections 254 to 258 contain further provision about national security notices. The Secretary of State may give a relevant operator a technical capability notice under this section if— the Secretary of State considers that the notice is necessary for securing that the operator or another relevant operator has the capability to provide any assistance which such operator may be required to provide in relation to any relevant authorisation, A “technical capability notice” is a notice— imposing on the relevant operator (to whom the notice is given) any applicable obligations specified in the notice, and requiring the person to take all the steps specified in the notice for the purpose of complying with those obligations. “applicable obligation”, in relation to a relevant operator of a particular description, means an obligation specified by the Secretary of State in regulations as an obligation that may be imposed on relevant operators, or on relevant operators of that description; “relevant authorisation” means— any warrant issued under Part 2, 5 or 6, or any authorisation or notice given under Part 3; “relevant operator” means— a telecommunications operator, or a person who is proposing to become a postal operator or a telecommunications operator. Regulations under this section may specify an obligation that may be imposed on any relevant operators only if the Secretary of State considers it is reasonable to do so for the purpose of securing— that it is (and remains) practicable to impose requirements on those relevant operators to provide assistance in relation to relevant authorisations, and that it is (and remains) practicable for those relevant operators to comply with those requirements. The obligations that may be specified in regulations under this section include, among other things— obligations to provide facilities or services of a specified description; obligations relating to apparatus owned or operated by a relevant operator; obligations relating to the removal by a relevant operator of electronic protection applied by or on behalf of that operator to any communications or data; obligations relating to the security of any postal or telecommunications services provided by a relevant operator; obligations relating to the handling or disclosure of any information. Before making any regulations under this section, the Secretary of State must consult the following persons— the Technical Advisory Board, persons appearing to the Secretary of State to be likely to be subject to any obligations specified in the regulations, persons representing persons falling within paragraph (b), and persons with statutory functions in relation to persons falling within that paragraph. A technical capability notice— must specify such period as appears to the Secretary of State to be reasonable as the period within which the steps specified in the notice are to be taken, and may specify different periods in relation to different steps. A technical capability notice may be given to persons outside the United Kingdom (and may require things to be done, or not to be done, outside the United Kingdom). Sections 254 to 258 contain further provision about technical capability notices. In this section “relevant notice” means— a national security notice under section 252, or a technical capability notice under section 253. In deciding whether to approve a decision to give a relevant notice, a Judicial Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to the following matters— whether the notice is necessary as mentioned in section 252(1)(a) or (as the case may be) section 253(1)(a), and whether the conduct that would be required by the notice is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct. consider the matters referred to in subsection (2) with a sufficient degree of care as to ensure that the Judicial Commissioner complies with the duties imposed by section 2 (general duties in relation to privacy). Where a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to give a relevant notice, the Judicial Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. Where a Judicial Commissioner, other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner, refuses to approve a decision to give a relevant notice, the Secretary of State may ask the Investigatory Powers Commissioner to decide whether to approve the decision to give the notice. Before giving a relevant notice to a person, the Secretary of State must consult that person. Before giving a relevant notice, the Secretary of State must, among other matters, take into account— the likely number of users (if known) of any postal or telecommunications service to which the notice relates, any other effect of the notice on the person (or description of person) to whom it relates. In the case of a technical capability notice that would impose any obligations relating to the removal by a person of electronic protection applied by or on behalf of that person to any communications or data, in complying with subsection (3) the Secretary of State must in particular take into account the technical feasibility, and likely cost, of complying with those obligations. A relevant notice must be in writing. A relevant notice ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless before the end of that period— it is varied in accordance with section 256(4)(c) or (5)(c) so as to impose further requirements on the person to whom the notice was given, it is renewed (see section 256A), or it is revoked or otherwise ceases to have effect (see section 256). In subsection (5A) the “relevant period” means the period of two years beginning with— in the case of a relevant notice that has not been varied as mentioned in subsection (5A)(a) or renewed, the day on which the notice was given, or in the case of a relevant notice that has been so varied or renewed, the day after the day at the end of which the relevant notice would have ceased to have effect if it had not been so varied or renewed. A technical capability notice may be given to a person outside the United Kingdom in any of the following ways (as well as by electronic or other means of giving a notice)— by delivering it to the person's principal office within the United Kingdom or, if the person has no such office in the United Kingdom, to any place in the United Kingdom where the person carries on business or conducts activities; if the person has specified an address in the United Kingdom as one at which the person, or someone on the person's behalf, will accept documents of the same description as a notice, by delivering it to that address. The Secretary of State may by regulations make further provision about the giving of relevant notices. A person to whom a relevant notice is given, or any person employed or engaged for the purposes of that person's business, must not disclose the existence or contents of the notice to any other person without the permission of the Secretary of State. A person to whom a relevant notice is given must comply with the notice. The duty imposed by subsection (8) or (9), or by section 257(3A), is enforceable— in relation to a person in the United Kingdom, and so far as relating to a technical capability notice within subsection (11), in relation to a person outside the United Kingdom, by civil proceedings by the Secretary of State for an injunction, or for specific performance of a statutory duty under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988, or for any other appropriate relief. A technical capability notice is within this subsection if it relates to any of the following— a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 2; a bulk interception warrant; an authorisation or notice given under Part 3. Subsection (9) applies to a person to whom a national security notice is given despite any other duty imposed on the person by or under Part 1, or Chapter 1 of Part 2, of the Communications Act 2003. The Secretary of State must keep each relevant notice under review. vary a relevant notice; revoke a relevant notice (whether wholly or in part). The Secretary of State may vary a national security notice given to a person only if— the Secretary of State considers that the variation is necessary in the interests of national security, the Secretary of State considers that the conduct required by the notice as varied is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, and if the variation would impose further requirements on the person, the decision to vary the notice has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner (but see subsection (6)). The Secretary of State may vary a technical capability notice given to a person only if— the Secretary of State considers that the variation is necessary for securing that the person has the capability to provide any assistance which the person may be required to provide in relation to any relevant authorisation (within the meaning of section 253), The condition in subsection (4)(c) or (as the case may be) subsection (5)(c) does not apply in the case of a variation to which section 257(10) applies. If the Secretary of State varies or revokes a relevant notice given to any person, the Secretary of State must give that person notice of the variation or revocation. Section 254 (approval of notices by Judicial Commissioners) applies in relation to a decision to vary a relevant notice (other than a decision to which section 257(10) applies) as it applies in relation to a decision to give a relevant notice, but as if— the reference in section 254(2)(a) to the notice were to the variation, and the reference in section 254(2)(b) to the notice were to the notice as varied. Subsections (2) to (4) and (7) of section 255 apply in relation to varying or revoking a relevant notice as they apply in relation to giving a relevant notice (and in the application of section 255(3) and (4) in relation to varying a relevant notice, references to the notice are to be read as references to the notice as varied). Subsections (5) and (6) of section 255 apply to any notice of the variation or revocation of a relevant notice as they apply to a relevant notice. The fact that a relevant notice has been revoked in relation to a particular person (or description of persons) does not prevent the giving of another relevant notice of the same kind in relation to the same person (or description of persons). Any reference in this section or section 255(8) to (12) to a notice given under section 252 or 253 includes a reference to such a notice as varied under this section. If the renewal conditions are met, a relevant notice may be renewed, at any time during the renewal period, by a notice given by the Secretary of State. The renewal conditions for a national security notice given under section 252 are that— the Secretary of State considers that the notice is still necessary in the interests of national security, the Secretary of State considers that the conduct required by the notice is still proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct, and the decision to renew the notice has been approved by a Judicial Commissioner. The renewal conditions for a technical capability notice given under section 253 are that— the Secretary of State considers that the notice is still necessary for securing that the relevant operator has the capability to provide any assistance which the operator may be required to provide in relation to any relevant authorisation, The renewal period means the period of 30 days ending with the day at the end of which the relevant notice would otherwise cease to have effect. If the Secretary of State renews a relevant notice given to any person, the Secretary of State must give that person notice in writing of the renewal.

Sections 254, 255(2) to (4) and (7) and 257 apply in relation to the renewal of a relevant notice as they apply in relation to the giving of a relevant notice. Section 255(6) applies to any notice of the renewal of a technical capability notice as it applies to a technical capability notice. “relevant authorisation” has the meaning given by section 253; “relevant notice” means— a technical capability notice under section 253; “relevant operator” has the meaning given by section 253. A person who is given a notice under section 252 or 253 may, within such period or circumstances as may be provided for by regulations made by the Secretary of State, refer the notice back to the Secretary of State. Where a person who is given a notice under section 252 or 253 refers the notice under subsection (1)— there is no requirement for the person to comply with the notice, so far as referred, and subsection (3A) applies to the person, until the Secretary of State has reviewed the notice in accordance with subsection (4). Where this subsection applies to a person, the person must not make any relevant changes to telecommunications or postal services, or telecommunication systems, to which obligations imposed by the notice given under section 252 or 253 relate. In subsection (3A) “relevant change” means a change that, if implemented, would have a negative effect on the capability of the person to provide any assistance which the person may be required to provide in relation to any warrant, authorisation or notice issued or given under this Act. The Secretary of State must , before the end of the review period, review any notice so far as referred to the Secretary of State under subsection (1) (and accordingly decide what action to take under subsection (9)). In subsection (4) “the review period” means— if that period is extended by the Secretary of State in accordance with the regulations (see subsection (13)), such extended period. The Board must consider the technical requirements and the financial consequences, for the person who has made the reference, of the notice so far as referred. give the person concerned and the Secretary of State the opportunity to provide evidence, or make representations, to them before reaching their conclusions, and the person, and The Commissioner may give a direction to the person concerned or the Secretary of State specifying the period within which the person or the Secretary of State (as the case may be) may provide evidence, or make representations, in accordance with subsection (8)(a). If the Commissioner gives such a direction to the person or the Secretary of State, the Board and the Commissioner are not required to take into account any evidence provided, or representations made, by the person or the Secretary of State (as the case may be) after the end of that period. vary or revoke the notice under section 256, or give a notice under this section to the person confirming its effect. But the Secretary of State may vary the notice, or give a notice under subsection (9)(b) confirming its effect, only if the Secretary of State's decision to do so has been approved by the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. In subsection (9) “the relevant period” means— Subsections (5) to (8) of section 255 apply in relation to a notice under subsection (9)(b) above as they apply in relation to a notice under section 252 or 253. Any reference in this section or section 258 to a notice under section 252 or 253 includes such a notice as varied under section 256, but only so far as the variation is concerned. But it does not include a notice varied as mentioned in subsection (9)(a) above. Regulations under subsection (4A)(a) may include provision enabling any period provided for by the regulations to be extended by the Secretary of State where the extension is agreed by the Secretary of State, the person concerned and a Judicial Commissioner. Regulations under subsection (10A)(a) may include provision enabling any period provided for by the regulations to be extended by the Secretary of State— Where regulations under subsection (10A)(a) include provision mentioned in subsection (14), the regulations must also include provision requiring the Secretary of State to notify a Judicial Commissioner and the person concerned of the duration of any extended period. In deciding whether to approve a decision to vary a relevant notice as mentioned in section 257(9)(a), or to give a notice under section 257(9)(b) confirming the effect of a relevant notice, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must review the Secretary of State's conclusions as to the following matters— whether the relevant notice as varied or confirmed is necessary as mentioned in section 252(1)(a) or (as the case may be) section 253(1)(a), and whether the conduct required by the relevant notice, as varied or confirmed, is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct. consider the matters referred to in subsection (2) with a sufficient degree of care as to ensure that the Investigatory Powers Commissioner complies with the duties imposed by section 2 (general duties in relation to privacy). Where the Investigatory Powers Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to vary a relevant notice as mentioned in section 257(9)(a), or to give a notice under section 257(9)(b) confirming the effect of a relevant notice, the Investigatory Powers Commissioner must give the Secretary of State written reasons for the refusal. The Secretary of State may give a relevant operator a notice in writing under this section requiring the operator to notify the Secretary of State of any proposals of the operator to make any relevant changes specified in the notice. In this section “relevant change” means a change— to a service or system within subsection (3), and that is specified in regulations made by the Secretary of State as a change that may be included in a notice given under this section. The following are within this subsection— telecommunications services offered or provided by the operator; telecommunication systems controlled or provided by the operator; postal services provided by the operator. Regulations under subsection (2) may in particular specify changes by reference to the impact of the changes on the capability of a relevant operator to provide any assistance which the operator may be required to provide in relation to any warrant, authorisation or notice issued or given under this Act. The Secretary of State may give a relevant operator a notice under this section only if the Secretary of State considers that— the notice is necessary for maintaining the capability of the relevant operator to provide any assistance which the operator may be required to provide in relation to any warrant, authorisation or notice issued or given under this Act, and the conduct required by the notice is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct. Before giving a notice under this section, the Secretary of State must among other matters take into account— any other effect of the notice on the operator to whom it relates. Before giving a notice under this section to a relevant operator, the Secretary of State must consult that operator. A relevant operator to whom a notice is given under this section, or any person employed or engaged for the purposes of that relevant operator’s business, must not disclose the existence or contents of the notice to any other person without the permission of the Secretary of State. A relevant operator to whom a notice is given under this section must comply with the notice a reasonable time before making any relevant changes to which the notice relates. The duty imposed by subsection (8) or (9) is enforceable by civil proceedings by the Secretary of State for an injunction, or for specific performance of a statutory duty under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988, or for any other appropriate relief. In this section “relevant operator” means— a person who is proposing to become a postal operator or a telecommunications operator, who meets the condition in subsection (12). The condition in this subsection is that the operator or person provides (or has provided) assistance in relation to any warrant, authorisation or notice issued or given under this Act. “relevant notice” means a notice given under section 258A; “relevant operator” has the same meaning as in that section. The Secretary of State may vary a relevant notice only if the Secretary of State considers that— the variation is necessary for maintaining the capability of the relevant operator to provide any assistance which the operator may be required to provide in relation to any warrant, authorisation or notice issued or given under this Act, and the conduct required by the notice, as varied, is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by that conduct. If the Secretary of State varies or revokes a relevant notice given to any relevant operator, the Secretary of State must give that relevant operator notice in writing of the variation or revocation. The fact that a relevant notice has been revoked in relation to a particular relevant operator does not prevent the giving of another relevant notice of the same kind in relation to the same relevant operator. Subsections (6) and (7) of section 258A apply in relation to varying or revoking a relevant notice as they apply in relation to giving a relevant notice. Any reference in this section or section 258A(8) or (9) to a notice given under section 258A includes a reference to such a notice as varied under this section. The Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 is amended as follows. Section 48 (interception and disclosure of messages) is amended as follows. In subsection (1), for “otherwise than under the authority of a designated person” substitute “ without lawful authority ”. After subsection (3) insert— A person does not commit an offence under this section consisting in any conduct if the conduct— constitutes an offence under section 3(1) of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (offence of unlawful interception), or would do so in the absence of any lawful authority (within the meaning of section 6 of that Act). Omit subsection (5). Omit section 49 (interception authorities). In consequence of the repeal made by subsection (6)— in sections 50(5) and 119(2)(a), for “49” substitute “ 48 ”; in section 121(2), omit paragraph (b). The Secretary of State must, within the period of 6 months beginning with the end of the initial period, prepare a report on the operation of this Act. In subsection (1) “the initial period” is the period of 5 years and 6 months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed. In preparing the report under subsection (1), the Secretary of State must, in particular, take account of any report on the operation of this Act made by a Select Committee of either House of Parliament (whether acting alone or jointly). publish the report prepared under subsection (1), and lay a copy of it before Parliament. The definitions in this section have effect for the purposes of this Act. “Communication”, in relation to a telecommunications operator, telecommunications service or telecommunication system, includes— signals serving either for the impartation of anything between persons, between a person and a thing or between things or for the actuation or control of any apparatus. “Entity data” means any data which— is about— an entity, an association between a telecommunications service and an entity, or an association between any part of a telecommunication system and an entity, consists of, or includes, data which identifies or describes the entity (whether or not by reference to the entity's location), and is not events data. “Events data” means any data which identifies or describes an event (whether or not by reference to its location) on, in or by means of a telecommunication system where the event consists of one or more entities engaging in a specific activity at a specific time. “Communications data”, in relation to a telecommunications operator, telecommunications service or telecommunication system, means entity data or events data— which is (or is to be or is capable of being) held or obtained by, or on behalf of, a telecommunications operator and— is about an entity to which a telecommunications service is provided and relates to the provision of the service, is comprised in, included as part of, attached to or logically associated with a communication (whether by the sender or otherwise) for the purposes of a telecommunication system by means of which the communication is being or may be transmitted, or does not fall within sub-paragraph (i) or (ii) but does relate to the use of a telecommunications service or a telecommunication system, which is available directly from a telecommunication system and falls within sub-paragraph (ii) of paragraph (a), or which— is (or is to be or is capable of being) held or obtained by, or on behalf of, a telecommunications operator, is about the architecture of a telecommunication system, and is not about a specific person, but (subject to subsection (5A)) does not include any content of a communication or anything which, in the absence of subsection (6)(b), would be content of a communication. In subsection (5) the words after paragraph (c) do not apply to relevant subscriber data. In subsection (5A) “relevant subscriber data” means entity data, other than data comprised in a recording of speech, which— constitutes any or all of the content of a communication made for the purpose of initiating or maintaining an entity’s access to a telecommunications service, and is about an entity to which that telecommunications service is (or is to be) provided. “Content”, in relation to a communication and a telecommunications operator, telecommunications service or telecommunication system, means any element of the communication, or any data attached to or logically associated with the communication, which reveals anything of what might reasonably be considered to be the meaning (if any) of the communication, but— any meaning arising from the fact of the communication or from any data relating to the transmission of the communication is to be disregarded, and anything which is systems data is not content. “Entity” means a person or thing. “Public telecommunications service” means any telecommunications service which is offered or provided to the public, or a substantial section of the public, in any one or more parts of the United Kingdom. “Public telecommunication system” means a telecommunication system located in the United Kingdom— by means of which any public telecommunications service is provided, or which consists of parts of any other telecommunication system by means of which any such service is provided. “Telecommunications operator” means a person who— offers or provides a telecommunications service to persons in the United Kingdom, ... controls or provides a telecommunication system which is (wholly or partly)— in the United Kingdom, or controlled from the United Kingdom, or controls or provides a telecommunication system which— is not (wholly or partly) in, or controlled from, the United Kingdom, and is used by another person to offer or provide a telecommunications service to persons in the United Kingdom. “Telecommunications service” means any service that consists in the provision of access to, and of facilities for making use of, any telecommunication system (whether or not one provided by the person providing the service). For the purposes of subsection (11), the cases in which a service is to be taken to consist in the provision of access to, and of facilities for making use of, a telecommunication system include any case where a service consists in or includes facilitating the creation, management or storage of communications transmitted, or that may be transmitted, by means of such a system. “Telecommunication system” means a system (including the apparatus comprised in it) that exists (whether wholly or partly in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) for the purpose of facilitating the transmission of communications by any means involving the use of electrical or electromagnetic energy. “Private telecommunication system” means any telecommunication system which— is not a public telecommunication system, is attached, directly or indirectly, to a public telecommunication system (whether or not for the purposes of the communication in question), and includes apparatus which is both located in the United Kingdom and used (with or without other apparatus) for making the attachment to that public telecommunication system. “Communication”, in relation to a postal operator or postal service (but not in the definition of “postal service” in this section), includes anything transmitted by a postal service. “Communications data”, in relation to a postal operator or postal service, means— postal data comprised in, included as part of, attached to or logically associated with a communication (whether by the sender or otherwise) for the purposes of a postal service by means of which it is being or may be transmitted, information about the use made by any person of a postal service (but excluding any content of a communication (apart from information within paragraph (a)), or information not within paragraph (a) or (b) that is (or is to be or is capable of being) held or obtained by or on behalf of a person providing a postal service, is about those to whom the service is provided by that person and relates to the service so provided. “Postal data” means data which— identifies, or purports to identify, any person, apparatus or location to or from which a communication is or may be transmitted, identifies or selects, or purports to identify or select, apparatus through which, or by means of which, a communication is or may be transmitted, identifies, or purports to identify, the time at which an event relating to a communication occurs, or identifies the data or other data as data comprised in, included as part of, attached to or logically associated with a particular communication. For the purposes of this definition “data”, in relation to a postal item, includes anything written on the outside of the item. “Postal item” means— any letter, postcard or other such thing in writing as may be used by the sender for imparting information to the recipient, or any packet or parcel. “Postal operator” means a person providing a postal service to persons in the United Kingdom. “Postal service” means a service that— consists in the following, or in any one or more of them, namely, the collection, sorting, conveyance, distribution and delivery (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) of postal items, and has as its main purpose, or one of its main purposes, to make available, or to facilitate, a means of transmission from place to place of postal items containing communications. “Public postal service” means a postal service that is offered or provided to the public, or a substantial section of the public, in any one or more parts of the United Kingdom. In this Act— “apparatus” includes any equipment, machinery or device (whether physical or logical) and any wire or cable, “civil proceedings” means any proceedings in or before any court or tribunal that are not criminal proceedings, “crime” means conduct which— constitutes one or more criminal offences, or is, or corresponds to, any conduct which, if it all took place in any one part of the United Kingdom, would constitute one or more criminal offences, “criminal proceedings” includes proceedings before a court in respect of a service offence within the meaning of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (and references to criminal prosecutions are to be read accordingly), “data” includes data which is not electronic data and any information (whether or not electronic), “Deputy Investigatory Powers Commissioner” means a person appointed under section 227(6A) (and the expression is also to be read in accordance with section 227(13)(b)), “destroy”, in relation to electronic data, means delete the data in such a way as to make access to the data impossible (and related expressions are to be read accordingly), “enactment” means an enactment whenever passed or made; and includes— an enactment contained in subordinate legislation within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978, an enactment contained in, or in an instrument made under, an Act of the Scottish Parliament, an enactment contained in, or in an instrument made under, a Measure or Act of the National Assembly for Wales, and an enactment contained in, or in an instrument made under, Northern Ireland legislation, “enhanced affirmative procedure” is to be read in accordance with section 268, “functions” includes powers and duties, “GCHQ” has the same meaning as in the Intelligence Services Act 1994, “head”, in relation to an intelligence service, means— in relation to the Security Service, the Director-General, in relation to the Secret Intelligence Service, the Chief, and in relation to GCHQ, the Director, “Her Majesty's forces” has the same meaning as in the Armed Forces Act 2006, “identifying data” has the meaning given by subsection (2), “intelligence service” means the Security Service, the Secret Intelligence Service or GCHQ, “the Investigatory Powers Commissioner” means the person appointed under section 227(1)(a) (and the expression is also to be read in accordance with section 227(13)(b)), “the Investigatory Powers Tribunal” means the tribunal established under section 65 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, “items subject to legal privilege”— in relation to England and Wales, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (see section 10 of that Act), in relation to Scotland, means— communications between a professional legal adviser and the adviser's client, or communications made in connection with, or in contemplation of, legal proceedings and for the purposes of those proceedings, which would, by virtue of any rule of law relating to the confidentiality of communications, be protected in legal proceedings from disclosure, and in relation to Northern Ireland, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)) (see Article 12 of that Order), “Judicial Commissioner” means a person appointed under section 227(1)(a) or (b) (and the expression is therefore to be read in accordance with section 227(13)(a)), “legal proceedings” means— civil or criminal proceedings in or before a court or tribunal, or proceedings before an officer in respect of a service offence within the meaning of the Armed Forces Act 2006, “modify” includes amend, repeal or revoke (and related expressions are to be read accordingly), “person holding office under the Crown” includes any servant of the Crown and any member of Her Majesty's forces, “premises” includes any land, movable structure, vehicle, vessel, aircraft or hovercraft (and “set of premises” is to be read accordingly), “primary legislation” means— an Act of Parliament, an Act of the Scottish Parliament, a Measure or Act of the National Assembly for Wales, or Northern Ireland legislation, “public authority” means a public authority within the meaning of section 6 of the Human Rights Act 1998, other than a court or tribunal, “serious crime” means crime where— the offence, or one of the offences, which is or would be constituted by the conduct concerned is an offence for which a person who has reached the age of 18 (or, in relation to Scotland or Northern Ireland, 21) and has no previous convictions could reasonably be expected to be sentenced to imprisonment for a term of 3 years or more, or the conduct involves the use of violence, results in substantial financial gain or is conduct by a large number of persons in pursuit of a common purpose, “source of journalistic information” means an individual who provides material intending the recipient to use it for the purposes of journalism or knowing that it is likely to be so used, “specified”, in relation to an authorisation, warrant, notice or regulations, means specified or described in the authorisation, warrant, notice or (as the case may be) regulations (and “specify” is to be read accordingly), “statutory”, in relation to any function, means conferred by virtue of this Act or any other enactment, “subordinate legislation” means— subordinate legislation within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978, or an instrument made under an Act of the Scottish Parliament, Northern Ireland legislation or a Measure or Act of the National Assembly for Wales, “systems data” has the meaning given by subsection (4), “the Technical Advisory Board” means the Board provided for by section 245, “the Technology Advisory Panel” means the panel established in accordance with section 246(1), “tri-service serious crime unit” means the unit described in section 375(1A) of the Armed Forces Act 2006, “working day” means a day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom. In this Act “identifying data” means— data which may be used to identify, or assist in identifying, any person, apparatus, system or service, data which may be used to identify, or assist in identifying, any event, or data which may be used to identify, or assist in identifying, the location of any person, event or thing. For the purposes of subsection (2), the reference to data which may be used to identify, or assist in identifying, any event includes— data relating to the fact of the event; data relating to the type, method or pattern of event; data relating to the time or duration of the event. In this Act “systems data” means any data that enables or facilitates, or identifies or describes anything connected with enabling or facilitating, the functioning of any of the following— a postal service; a telecommunication system (including any apparatus forming part of the system); any telecommunications service provided by means of a telecommunication system; a relevant system (including any apparatus forming part of the system); any service provided by means of a relevant system. For the purposes of subsection (4), a system is a “relevant system” if any communications or other information are held on or by means of the system. For the purposes of this Act detecting crime or serious crime is to be taken to include— establishing by whom, for what purpose, by what means and generally in what circumstances any crime or (as the case may be) serious crime was committed, and the apprehension of the person by whom any crime or (as the case may be) serious crime was committed. References in this Act to the examination of material obtained under a warrant are references to the material being read, looked at or listened to by the persons to whom it becomes available as a result of the warrant. “Journalistic material” means material created or acquired for the purposes of journalism. For the purposes of this section, where— a person (“R”) receives material from another person (“S”), and S intends R to use the material for the purposes of journalism, R is to be taken to have acquired it for those purposes. Accordingly, a communication sent by S to R containing such material is to be regarded as a communication containing journalistic material. For the purposes of determining whether a communication contains material acquired for the purposes of journalism, it does not matter whether the material has been acquired for those purposes by the sender or recipient of the communication or by some other person. material is not to be regarded as created or acquired for the purposes of journalism if it is created or acquired with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose, and material which a person intends to be used to further such a purpose is not to be regarded as intended to be used for the purposes of journalism. “Confidential journalistic material” means— in the case of material contained in a communication, journalistic material which the sender of the communication— holds in confidence, or intends the recipient, or intended recipient, of the communication to hold in confidence; in any other case, journalistic material which a person holds in confidence. A person holds material in confidence for the purposes of this section if— the person holds it subject to an express or implied undertaking to hold it in confidence, or the person holds it subject to a restriction on disclosure or an obligation of secrecy contained in an enactment. In this Act, the expressions listed in the left-hand column have the meaning given by, or are to be interpreted in accordance with, the provisions listed in the right-hand column. This section applies if an offence under this Act is committed by a body corporate or a Scottish partnership. If the offence is proved to have been committed with the consent or connivance of, or to be attributable to any neglect on the part of— a senior officer of the body corporate or Scottish partnership, or a person purporting to act in such a capacity, the senior officer or person (as well as the body corporate or partnership) is guilty of the offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. “director”, in relation to a body corporate whose affairs are managed by its members, means a member of the body corporate, “senior officer” means— in relation to a body corporate, a director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate, and in relation to a Scottish partnership, a partner in the partnership. Any power of the Secretary of State or the Treasury to make regulations under this Act— is exercisable by statutory instrument, may be exercised so as to make different provision for different purposes or different areas, and includes power to make supplementary, incidental, consequential, transitional, transitory or saving provision. See sections 72(3) and 73(6) for the procedure for a statutory instrument containing regulations under section 71 to which section 72 applies or (as the case may be) regulations under section 73(4) to which section 73(5) applies (enhanced affirmative procedure). A statutory instrument containing regulations under— section 12(4) or 271(2) which amend or repeal any provision of primary legislation, section 46(2), section 52(5), section 83, section 90(1) , (5A)(a) or (11A)(a), section 202A, section 239, section 240(3), section 245, section 253, section 257(1) , (4A)(a) or (10A)(a), ... section 258A(2), or paragraph 33 of Schedule 8, may not be made unless a draft of the instrument has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament. A statutory instrument containing— regulations under section 12(4) or 271(2) to which subsection (3) does not apply, regulations under section 65(5), or regulations under paragraph 2(1)(b) of Schedule 5, is (if a draft of the instrument has not been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament) subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament. regulations under section 10(3), regulations under section 12(5B), regulations under section 52(3), regulations under section 58(8)(a), regulations under section 71 to which section 72 does not apply, regulations under section 73(4) to which section 73(5) does not apply, regulations under section 133(6)(a), or regulations under section 255(7), is subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament. A statutory instrument containing regulations under paragraph 4 of Schedule 5 is subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of the House of Commons. See paragraphs 4(4) and 5(5) of Schedule 7 for the procedure for a statutory instrument containing regulations about the coming into force of a code of practice under that Schedule or of any revisions to such a code of practice (affirmative procedure or, in the case of the coming into force of revisions, a choice between that procedure and laying before Parliament after being made). A statutory instrument containing regulations which are subject to a particular parliamentary procedure under this Act may also include regulations which are subject to a different or no parliamentary procedure under this Act (but this subsection does not apply to regulations mentioned in subsection (2), (4), (6) or (7)). A statutory instrument which, by virtue of subsection (8), contains regulations which are subject to different parliamentary procedures, or one or more parliamentary procedure and no parliamentary procedure, is subject to whichever procedure is the higher procedure; and the order is as follows (the highest first)— the procedure set out in subsection (3) (the affirmative procedure), the procedure set out in subsection (5) above (the negative procedure), no procedure. Provision is not prevented from being included in regulations made under this Act merely because the provision could have been included in other regulations made under this Act which would have been subject to a different or no parliamentary procedure. For the purposes of regulations under section 71 to which section 72 applies and regulations under section 73(4) to which section 73(5) applies, the enhanced affirmative procedure is as follows. Subsection (3) applies if— the Secretary of State has consulted under section 72(2) or (as the case may be) 73(5) in relation to making such regulations, a period of at least 12 weeks, beginning with the day on which any such consultation first began, has elapsed, and the Secretary of State considers it appropriate to proceed with making such regulations. The Secretary of State must lay before Parliament— draft regulations, and a document which explains the regulations. The Secretary of State may make regulations in the terms of the draft regulations laid under subsection (3) if, after the end of the 40-day period, the draft regulations are approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament. But subsections (6) to (9) apply instead of subsection (4) if— either House of Parliament so resolves within the 30-day period, or a committee of either House charged with reporting on the draft regulations so recommends within the 30-day period and the House to which the recommendation is made does not by resolution reject the recommendation within that period. The Secretary of State must have regard to— any representations, any resolution of either House of Parliament, and any recommendations of a committee of either House of Parliament charged with reporting on the draft regulations, made during the 60-day period with regard to the draft regulations. If after the end of the 60-day period the draft regulations are approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament, the Secretary of State may make regulations in the terms of the draft regulations. If after the end of the 60-day period the Secretary of State wishes to proceed with the draft regulations but with material changes, the Secretary of State may lay before Parliament— revised draft regulations, and a statement giving a summary of the changes proposed. If the revised draft regulations are approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament, the Secretary of State may make regulations in the terms of the revised draft regulations. For the purposes of this section regulations are made in the terms of draft regulations or revised draft regulations if they contain no material changes to the provisions of the draft, or revised draft, regulations. References in this section to the “30-day”, “40-day” and “60-day” periods in relation to any draft regulations are to the periods of 30, 40 and 60 days beginning with the day on which the draft regulations were laid before Parliament; and, for this purpose, no account is to be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which either House is adjourned for more than four days. There is to be paid out of money provided by Parliament— any expenditure incurred by a Minister of the Crown or government department by virtue of this Act, and any increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable by virtue of any other Act out of money so provided. Schedule 9 (which contains transitional, transitory and saving provision including a general saving for lawful conduct) has effect. The Secretary of State may by regulations make such transitional, transitory or saving provision as the Secretary of State considers appropriate in connection with the coming into force of any provision of this Act. Schedule 10 (which contains minor and consequential provision) has effect. The Secretary of State may by regulations make such provision as the Secretary of State considers appropriate in consequence of this Act. The power to make regulations under subsection (2) may, in particular, be exercised by modifying any provision made by or under an enactment. In subsection (3) “enactment” does not include any primary legislation passed or made after the end of the Session in which this Act is passed. Subject to subsections (2) and (3), this Act comes into force on such day as the Secretary of State may by regulations appoint; and different days may be appointed for different purposes. Sections 260 to 269, 270(2), 271(2) to (4) and this section come into force on the day on which this Act is passed. Sections 227 and 228 come into force at the end of the period of two months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed. Subject to subsections (5) to (7), this Act extends to England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland. An amendment, repeal or revocation made by this Act of an enactment has the same extent within the United Kingdom as the enactment amended, repealed or revoked. Her Majesty may by Order in Council provide for any of the provisions of this Act to extend, with or without modifications, to the Isle of Man or any of the British overseas territories. Any power under an Act to extend any provision of that Act by Order in Council to any of the Channel Islands may be exercised so as to extend there (with or without modifications) any amendment or repeal of that provision which is made by or under this Act. This Act may be cited as the Investigatory Powers Act 2016. A monetary penalty imposed by a monetary penalty notice must be paid to the Commissioner within the period specified in the notice. The period specified under sub-paragraph (1) must not be less than 28 days beginning with the day after the day on which the notice is served. Any sum received by the Commissioner by virtue of a monetary penalty notice must be paid into the Consolidated Fund. A monetary penalty notice must, in particular— state the name and address of the person on whom it is to be served, provide details of the notice of intent served on that person (see paragraph 4), state whether the Commissioner has received written representations in accordance with that notice of intent, state the grounds on which the Commissioner serves the monetary penalty notice, state the grounds on which the Commissioner decided the amount of the monetary penalty imposed by the monetary penalty notice, state the details of how the monetary penalty is to be paid, provide details of the person's rights of appeal under paragraph 8 in respect of the monetary penalty notice, provide details of the Commissioner's rights of enforcement under paragraph 9 in respect of the monetary penalty notice. The Commissioner may include an enforcement obligation, or enforcement obligations, in a monetary penalty notice if the Commissioner considers that the interception to which the notice relates is continuing. Each of the following is an enforcement obligation— a requirement on the person on whom the notice is served to cease the interception on a specified day or within a specified period; (where appropriate for achieving such a cessation) a requirement on the person to take specified steps within a specified period, or to refrain from taking specified steps after the end of a specified period. An enforcement obligation may not have effect before the end of the period of 7 days beginning with the day after the day on which the notice is served. Where an enforcement obligation is included in a monetary penalty notice under this paragraph, the notice must state what the obligation is and the grounds for including it. The Commissioner must proceed in accordance with sub-paragraphs (2) to (7) before serving a monetary penalty notice on a person. The Commissioner must serve a notice of intent on the person. A notice of intent is a notice that the Commissioner proposes to serve a monetary penalty notice on the person. A notice of intent served on a person must, in particular— state the name and address of the person, state the grounds on which the Commissioner proposes to serve the monetary penalty notice, provide an indication of the amount of the monetary penalty that the Commissioner proposes to impose and the Commissioner's grounds for deciding that amount, state whether the monetary penalty notice is to include any enforcement obligation and, if so, what the obligation is and the grounds for including it, state the date on which the Commissioner proposes to serve the monetary penalty notice, inform the person that the person may make written representations in relation to the Commissioner's proposal within a period specified in the notice, and inform the person that the person may, within a period specified in the notice, request an oral hearing before the Commissioner in order to make representations of the kind mentioned in sub-paragraph (6)(b). No period specified as mentioned in sub-paragraph (4)(f) or (g) may be less than 21 days beginning with the day after the day on which the notice is served. Where the person has requested an oral hearing within the period specified for the purpose in the notice— the Commissioner must arrange such a hearing, and the person may make representations at the hearing about— any matter falling within section 7(3)(c), or any other matter relating to the Commissioner's proposal which, by virtue of section 56, the person would be unable to raise on an appeal under paragraph 8. The Commissioner must consider any representations which have been made by the person in accordance with the notice or sub-paragraph (6). If the Commissioner decides not to serve a monetary penalty notice on a person as a result of any representations which have been made by the person in accordance with a notice of intent or sub-paragraph (6), the Commissioner must inform the person of that fact. The Commissioner may not vary a notice of intent except as set out in sub-paragraph (2). The Commissioner may vary a notice of intent by extending the period mentioned in paragraph 4(4)(f) or (g). Sub-paragraph (1) does not prevent the Commissioner from serving a new notice of intent instead of varying such a notice. The Commissioner may cancel a notice of intent. A variation or cancellation of a notice of intent is effected by serving on the person on whom the notice was served a notice setting out the variation or cancellation. The Commissioner must not serve a monetary penalty notice on a person in respect of an interception if any notice of intent in respect of that interception was served on the person more than 3 months earlier. But the Commissioner may serve a monetary penalty notice on a person where the service of the notice would otherwise be prevented by sub-paragraph (1) if the Commissioner— considers it reasonable to do so, and includes the reasons for doing so in the monetary penalty notice. The Commissioner may vary or cancel a monetary penalty notice. But the Commissioner may not vary a monetary penalty notice in a way that is detrimental to the person on whom it was served (whether by increasing the amount of the monetary penalty, by reducing the period specified in the notice as the period within which the penalty must be paid, by imposing a new enforcement obligation or making an existing enforcement obligation effective earlier or otherwise more onerous, or otherwise). The Commissioner must— in the case of a variation which reduces the amount of a monetary penalty, repay any excess already paid in accordance with the notice, and in the case of a cancellation, repay any amount already paid in accordance with the notice. A variation or cancellation of a monetary penalty notice is effected by serving on the person on whom the monetary penalty notice was served a notice setting out the variation or cancellation. The Commissioner may not serve another monetary penalty notice on a person in respect of an interception if the Commissioner has cancelled a previous notice served on the person in respect of the same interception. If the Commissioner refuses a request by a person to vary or cancel a monetary penalty notice which has been served on the person, the Commissioner must inform the person of that fact. A person on whom a monetary penalty notice is served may appeal to the First-tier Tribunal against— the monetary penalty notice or any provision of it, or any refusal of a request by the person to serve a notice of variation or cancellation in relation to the monetary penalty notice. Where there is an appeal under sub-paragraph (1)(a) in relation to a monetary penalty notice or any provision of it, any requirement in the notice or (as the case may be) provision which does not relate to the imposition of an enforcement obligation need not be complied with until the appeal is withdrawn or finally determined. Sub-paragraphs (4) to (6) apply in relation to an appeal under sub-paragraph (1)(a). The First-tier Tribunal must allow the appeal or substitute such other monetary penalty notice as could have been served by the Commissioner if the Tribunal considers— that the notice to which the appeal relates is not in accordance with the law, or to the extent that the notice involved an exercise of discretion by the Commissioner, that the Commissioner ought to have exercised the discretion differently. In any other case, the First-tier Tribunal must dismiss the appeal. The First-tier Tribunal may review any determination of fact on which the notice was based. Sub-paragraphs (8) to (10) apply in relation to an appeal under sub-paragraph (1)(b). The First-tier Tribunal must direct the Commissioner to serve, on such terms as the Tribunal considers appropriate, a notice of variation or cancellation in relation to the monetary penalty notice if the Tribunal considers that the monetary penalty notice ought to be varied or cancelled on those terms. The First-tier Tribunal may review any determination of fact on which the refusal to serve the notice of variation or cancellation was based. This paragraph applies in relation to any penalty payable to the Commissioner by virtue of a monetary penalty notice. In England and Wales or Northern Ireland, the penalty is recoverable— if the county court in England and Wales or a county court in Northern Ireland so orders, as if it were payable under an order of that court, and if the High Court so orders, as if it were payable under an order of that court. In Scotland, the penalty is recoverable as if it were payable under an extract registered decree arbitral bearing a warrant for execution issued by the sheriff for any sheriffdom in Scotland. A person on whom a monetary penalty notice containing an enforcement obligation is served must comply with the obligation. The duty imposed by sub-paragraph (1) is enforceable by civil proceedings by the Commissioner for an injunction, or for specific performance of a statutory duty under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988, or for any other appropriate relief.

The Commissioner must prepare and issue guidance on how the Commissioner proposes to exercise the Commissioner's functions under section 7 and this Schedule. The guidance must, in particular, deal with— the manner in which the Commissioner is to deal with claims of a description specified in the guidance which may give rise to grounds for serving a monetary penalty notice, the circumstances in which the Commissioner would consider it appropriate to serve a monetary penalty notice, how the Commissioner will determine the amount of the penalty, and the circumstances in which the Commissioner would consider it appropriate to impose an enforcement obligation. The Commissioner may alter or replace the guidance. If the guidance is altered or replaced, the Commissioner must issue the altered or replacement guidance. The Commissioner must arrange for the publication, in such form and manner as the Commissioner considers appropriate, of any guidance issued under this paragraph. In this Part of this Schedule— “address” means— in the case of a registered company, the address of its registered office, in the case of a person (other than a registered company) carrying on a business, the address of the person's principal place of business in the United Kingdom, and in any other case, the person's last known address; “the Commissioner” means the Investigatory Powers Commissioner; “enforcement obligation” has the meaning given by paragraph 3(2); “monetary penalty notice” means a monetary penalty notice under section 7; “notice” means notice in writing; “notice of intent” has the meaning given by paragraph 4(3); “registered company” means a company registered under the enactments relating to companies for the time being in force in the United Kingdom. The Commissioner may by notice (an “information notice”) request any person on whom the Commissioner is considering whether to serve a Part 1 notice of intent or a Part 1 monetary penalty notice to provide such information as the Commissioner reasonably requires for the purpose of deciding whether to serve it. Where the Commissioner requests that documents be produced, the Commissioner may take copies of, or extracts from, any document so produced. An information notice must— specify or describe the information to be provided, specify the manner in which, and the period within which, the information is to be provided, state that the Commissioner considers that the information is information which the Commissioner reasonably requires for the purpose of deciding whether to serve a Part 1 notice of intent or (as the case may be) a Part 1 monetary penalty notice, state the Commissioner's grounds for this view, and provide details of the rights of appeal under paragraph 15 in respect of the information notice. For the purposes of sub-paragraph (3)(b)— specifying the manner in which the information is to be provided may include specifying the form in which it is to be provided, and the specified period within which the information is to be provided must not be less than 28 days beginning with the day after the day on which the information notice is served. The Commissioner may not vary an information notice except as set out in sub-paragraph (2). The Commissioner may vary an information notice by extending the period within which the information is to be provided if the person on whom the notice is served appeals under paragraph 15 in relation to the notice. Sub-paragraph (1) does not prevent the Commissioner from serving a new information notice instead of varying such a notice. The Commissioner may cancel an information notice. A variation or cancellation of an information notice is effected by serving on the person on whom the notice was served a notice setting out the variation or cancellation. A person on whom an information notice is served may appeal to the First-tier Tribunal against— the information notice or any provision of it, or any refusal of a request by the person to serve a notice of variation or cancellation in relation to the information notice. Subject to paragraph 14(2), an appeal under this paragraph does not affect the need to comply with the information notice while the appeal has not been withdrawn or finally determined. The First-tier Tribunal must allow the appeal or substitute such other information notice as could have been served by the Commissioner if the Tribunal considers— The First-tier Tribunal must direct the Commissioner to issue, on such terms as the Tribunal considers appropriate, a notice of variation or cancellation in relation to the information notice if the Tribunal considers that the information notice ought to be varied or cancelled on those terms. The Commissioner may serve a Part 2 monetary penalty notice on a person if the person— without reasonable excuse fails to comply with an information notice, or knowingly or recklessly gives any information which is false in a material particular in response to an information notice. A Part 2 monetary penalty notice is a notice requiring the person on whom it is served to pay to the Commissioner a monetary penalty of an amount determined by the Commissioner and specified in the notice. The amount of a monetary penalty determined by the Commissioner under this paragraph may be— a fixed amount, an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, or a fixed amount and an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate. But the total amount payable must not exceed £10,000. In the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate— no account is to be taken of the day on which the Part 2 monetary penalty notice is served or any day before that day, and the Part 2 monetary penalty notice must specify— the day on which the amount first starts to accumulate and the circumstances in which it is to cease to accumulate, and the period or periods within which the amount, or any part or parts so far accumulated, must be paid to the Commissioner. Any period falling within paragraph (b)(ii) must not be less than 28 days beginning with the day after the day on which the notice is served. Part 1 of this Schedule applies in relation to a Part 2 monetary penalty notice and the penalty that relates to that notice as it applies in relation to a Part 1 monetary penalty notice and the penalty that relates to that notice. The provisions in Part 1 of this Schedule so far as relating to enforcement obligations do not apply in relation to a Part 2 monetary penalty notice. Paragraph 4 has effect in relation to a Part 2 monetary penalty notice as if in sub-paragraph (6)(b) the reference to making representations about matters falling within sub-paragraph (6)(b)(i) or (ii) were a reference to making representations about matters falling within sub-paragraph (6)(b)(ii) only. Paragraph 6 has effect in relation to a Part 2 monetary penalty notice as if the references in sub-paragraph (1) to an interception were references to conduct falling within paragraph 16(1)(a) or (b). Paragraph 7(5) has effect in relation to a Part 2 monetary penalty notice as if the references to an interception were references to conduct falling within paragraph 16(1)(a) or (b). OFCOM must comply with any reasonable request made by the Commissioner, in connection with the Commissioner's functions under section 7 and this Schedule, for advice on technical and similar matters relating to electronic communications. For this purpose, the Commissioner may disclose to OFCOM any information obtained by the Commissioner under this Schedule. In this paragraph “OFCOM” means the Office of Communications established by section 1 of the Office of Communications Act 2002. “information” includes documents; and any reference to providing or giving information includes a reference to producing a document; “information notice” has the meaning given by paragraph 13(1); “Part 1 monetary penalty notice” means a monetary penalty notice under section 7; “Part 1 notice of intent” means a notice of intent (within the meaning of paragraph 4(3)) relating to a Part 1 monetary penalty notice; “Part 2 monetary penalty notice” means a monetary penalty notice under paragraph 16. In section 109B of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (power to require information)— in subsection (2A) omit paragraph (j), in subsection (2E) for the words from “for” to the end of the subsection substitute “ so as to secure the disclosure by a telecommunications operator or postal operator of communications data without the consent of the operator. ”, omit subsection (2F), and in subsection (7)— after the definition of “bank” insert— “communications data” has the same meaning as in the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (see sections 261 and 262 of that Act); after the definition of “insurer” insert— “postal operator” has the same meaning as in the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (see section 262 of that Act); for the definition of “telecommunications service” substitute— “telecommunications operator” has the same meaning as in the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (see section 261 of that Act). In section 109C of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (powers of entry) for subsection (6) substitute— Subsections (2E) and (5) of section 109B apply for the purposes of this section as they apply for the purposes of that section. In section 103B of the Social Security Administration (Northern Ireland) Act 1992 (power to require information)— in subsection (2A) omit paragraph (i), In section 103C of the Social Security Administration (Northern Ireland) Act 1992 (powers of entry) for subsection (6) substitute— Subsections (2E) and (5) of section 103B apply for the purposes of this section as they apply for the purposes of that section. In regulation 4 of the Prevention of Social Housing Fraud (Power to Require Information) (England) Regulations 2014 (power to require information from persons who provide telecommunications services etc.)— omit sub-paragraph (f) of paragraph (3), in sub-paragraph (g) of that paragraph for “(f)” substitute “ (e) ”, omit paragraphs (6) and (7), after paragraph (10) insert— Nothing in this regulation is to be read as enabling a person to secure the disclosure by a telecommunications operator or postal operator of communications data without the consent of the operator. in paragraph (11)— after the definition of “family” insert— The Treasury. A local authority. In this Schedule “local authority” has the same meaning as in Part 3 (see section 86). This Schedule contains— exceptions to the exclusion by section 56(1) of certain matters from legal proceedings, and limitations on those exceptions where that exclusion will still apply. Section 56(1)(a) does not prohibit the disclosure of any content of a communication, or any secondary data obtained from a communication, if the interception of that communication was lawful by virtue of any of the following provisions— sections 6(1)(c) and 44 to 52; sections 1(5)(c), 3 and 4 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000; section 1(2)(b) and (3) of the Interception of Communications Act 1985. Where any disclosure is proposed to be, or has been, made on the grounds that it is authorised by sub-paragraph (1), section 56(1) does not prohibit the doing of anything in, or for the purposes of, so much of any proceedings as relates to the question whether that disclosure is or was so authorised. Section 56(1)(b) does not prohibit the doing of anything that discloses any conduct of a person for which that person has been convicted of— an offence under section 3(1), 43(7), 59 or 155, an offence under section 1(1) or (2), 11(7) or 19 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, or an offence under section 1 of the Interception of Communications Act 1985. Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to— any proceedings before the Investigatory Powers Tribunal, any proceedings on an appeal under section 67A of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (appeal against decisions of the Tribunal etc.), or any proceedings arising out of such an appeal. any proceedings before the Special Immigration Appeals Commission, or any proceedings arising out of proceedings before that Commission. But sub-paragraph (1) does not permit the disclosure of anything to— the appellant or (as the case may be) applicant to the Special Immigration Appeals Commission, or any person who— represents that appellant or applicant for the purposes of the proceedings, and does so otherwise than by virtue of appointment under section 6 of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997. any proceedings before the Proscribed Organisations Appeal Commission, or But sub-paragraph (1) does not permit the disclosure of anything to any of the following— the applicant to the Commission; the organisation concerned (if different); any person designated under paragraph 6 of Schedule 3 to the Terrorism Act 2000 to conduct the proceedings on behalf of that organisation; represents that appellant or that organisation for the purposes of the proceedings, and does so otherwise than by virtue of an appointment under paragraph 7 of that Schedule. Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any section 6 proceedings within the meaning given by section 14(1) of the Justice and Security Act 2013 (certain civil proceedings in which closed material applications may be made). But sub-paragraph (1) does not permit a prohibited section 6 disclosure. In the case of section 6 proceedings where the only relevant person is the Secretary of State, a “prohibited section 6 disclosure” means a disclosure of anything to— any person, other than the Secretary of State, who is or was a party to the proceedings, or represents such a person for the purposes of the proceedings, and does so otherwise than by virtue of appointment as a special advocate. In the case of section 6 proceedings where the Secretary of State is not the only relevant person, or is not a relevant person but is a party to the proceedings, a “prohibited section 6 disclosure” means a disclosure of anything to— any person, other than the relevant person concerned or the Secretary of State, who is or was a party to the proceedings, or represents a person within paragraph (a) for the purposes of the proceedings, and In this paragraph “relevant person”, in relation to section 6 proceedings, has the meaning given by section 14(1) of the Justice and Security Act 2013. any TPIM proceedings, or any proceedings arising out of any TPIM proceedings. does so otherwise than by virtue of appointment as a special advocate under Schedule 4 to the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011. In this paragraph “TPIM proceedings” has the same meaning as in the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011. any proceedings which are relevant proceedings within the meaning of Part 2 of the National Security Act 2023 (see section 62(1) of that Act), or any proceedings arising out of any proceedings within paragraph (a). does so otherwise than by virtue of an appointment as a special advocate under Schedule 10 to the National Security Act 2023. any TEO proceedings, or any proceedings arising out of any TEO proceedings. does so otherwise than by virtue of appointment as a special advocate under Schedule 3 to the Counter-Terrorism and Security Act 2015. In this paragraph “TEO proceedings” has the meaning given by paragraph 1 of Schedule 3 to the Counter-Terrorism and Security Act 2015 (temporary exclusion orders: proceedings). Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any proceedings— on an application under section 38 of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (court review of decisions), or on a claim arising from any matter to which such an application relates, or any proceedings arising out of such proceedings. any person, other than the Secretary of State or the Treasury (as the case may be), who is or was a party to the proceedings, or any financial restrictions proceedings, or any proceedings arising out of such proceedings. In this paragraph “financial restrictions proceedings” has the meaning given by section 65 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008. But paragraph 10 does not permit the disclosure of anything to— any person, other than the Treasury, who is or was a party to the proceedings, or any proceedings before the Parole Board, or any proceedings before— the Parole Commissioners for Northern Ireland, or any Sentence Review Commissioners appointed under section 1 of the Northern Ireland (Sentences) Act 1998, or Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any proceedings before an employment tribunal where the applicant, or the applicant's representatives, are excluded for all or part of the proceedings pursuant to— a direction to the tribunal by virtue of section 10(5)(b) or (c) of the Employment Tribunals Act 1996 (exclusion from Crown employment proceedings by direction of Minister in interests of national security), or a determination of the tribunal by virtue of section 10(6) of that Act (determination by tribunal in interests of national security). Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any proceedings before an industrial tribunal in Northern Ireland where the applicant, or the applicant's representatives, are excluded for all or part of the proceedings pursuant to— a direction to the tribunal by virtue of Article 12(5)(b) or (c) of the Industrial Tribunals (Northern Ireland) Order 1996 (S.I. 1996/1921 (N.I. 18)) (exclusion from Crown employment proceedings by direction of Minister in interests of national security), or a determination of the tribunal by virtue of Article 12(6) of that Order (determination by tribunal in interests of national security). Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any proceedings arising out of proceedings within sub-paragraph (1) or (2). But paragraph 14 does not permit the disclosure of anything to— the person who is or was the applicant in the proceedings before the employment or industrial tribunal, or represents that person for the purposes of any proceedings within paragraph 14, and Section 56(1) does not prohibit anything done in, for the purposes of, or in connection with, so much of any legal proceedings as relates to the fairness or unfairness of a dismissal on the following grounds— any conduct constituting an offence under section 3(1), 43(7), 59 or 155; any conduct taking place before the coming into force of this paragraph and constituting— Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any proceedings on an appeal under Article 80(2) of the Fair Employment and Treatment (Northern Ireland) Order 1998 (S.I. 1998/3162 (N.I. 21)) where— the appeal relates to a claim of discrimination in contravention of Part 3 of that Order (employment cases) and to a certificate of the Secretary of State that the act concerned was justified for the purpose of safeguarding national security, and a party to the appeal, or the party's representatives, are excluded for all or part of the proceedings by virtue of section 91(4)(b) of the Northern Ireland Act 1998. Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any proceedings arising out of proceedings within sub-paragraph (1). But paragraph 17 does not permit the disclosure of anything to— any person who is or was excluded from all or part of the proceedings mentioned in paragraph 17(1), or represents such a person for the purposes of any proceedings within paragraph 17, and Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any civil proceedings under section 43(8) of this Act or section 11(8) of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (enforcement of duty of operators to assist with implementation of warrants). Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any proceedings for a relevant offence. “Relevant offence” means— an offence under any provision of this Act; an offence under section 1 of the Interception of Communications Act 1985; an offence under any provision of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000; an offence under section 47 or 48 of the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006; an offence under section 83 or 84 of the Postal Services Act 2000; an offence under section 4 of the Official Secrets Act 1989 relating to any such information, document or article as is mentioned in subsection (3)(a) or (c) of that section; an offence under section 1 or 2 of the Official Secrets Act 1911 relating to any sketch, plan, model, article, note, document or information which— incorporates, or relates to, the content of any intercepted communication or any secondary data obtained from a communication, or tends to suggest that any interception-related conduct has or may have occurred or may be going to occur; an offence of perjury committed in the course of any relevant proceedings; an offence under section 1 or 3 of the National Security Act 2023 relating to any information, document or other article which, or an offence under section 12 of that Act relating to any asset which— an offence under section 18 of the National Security Act 2023 in relation to an offence falling within paragraph (ha); an offence of attempting or conspiring to commit an offence falling within any of paragraphs (a) to (ha); an offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 in relation to an offence falling within any of those paragraphs; an offence of aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of an offence falling within any of those paragraphs; contempt of court committed in the course of, or in relation to, any relevant proceedings. In this paragraph— “intercepted communication” and “interception-related conduct” have the same meaning as in section 56; “relevant proceedings” means any proceedings mentioned in paragraphs 4 to 19. Nothing in section 56(1) prohibits— a disclosure to a person (“P”) conducting a criminal prosecution that is made for the purpose only of enabling P to determine what is required of P by P's duty to secure the fairness of the prosecution, or a disclosure to a relevant judge in a case in which the judge has ordered the disclosure to be made to the judge alone. A relevant judge may order a disclosure under sub-paragraph (1)(b) only if the judge considers that the exceptional circumstances of the case make the disclosure essential in the interests of justice. Where in any criminal proceedings— a relevant judge orders a disclosure under sub-paragraph (1)(b), and in consequence of that disclosure, the judge considers that there are exceptional circumstances requiring the judge to make a direction under this sub-paragraph, the judge may direct the person conducting the prosecution to make for the purposes of the proceedings any admission of fact which the judge considers essential in the interests of justice. But nothing in any direction under sub-paragraph (3) may authorise or require anything to be done in contravention of section 56(1). In this paragraph “relevant judge” means— any judge of the High Court or of the Crown Court or any Circuit judge, any judge of the High Court of Justiciary or any sheriff, in relation to proceedings before the Court Martial, the judge advocate for those proceedings, or any person holding a judicial office that entitles the person to exercise the jurisdiction of a judge falling within paragraph (a) or (b). a disclosure to the panel of an inquiry held under the Inquiries Act 2005, or a disclosure to a person appointed as legal adviser to such an inquiry, where, in the course of the inquiry, the panel has ordered the disclosure to be made to the panel alone or (as the case may be) to the panel and any person appointed as legal adviser to the inquiry. The panel of an inquiry may order a disclosure under sub-paragraph (1) only if it considers that the exceptional circumstances of the case make the disclosure essential to enable the inquiry to fulfil its terms of reference. Any reference in this paragraph to a person appointed as legal adviser to an inquiry is a reference to a person appointed as solicitor or counsel to the inquiry. Section 56(1) does not apply in relation to any restricted proceedings of an inquiry held under the Inquiries Act 2005. Proceedings of an inquiry held under that Act are “restricted proceedings” for the purposes of this paragraph if restrictions imposed under section 19 of that Act are in force prohibiting attendance at the proceedings by any person who is not— a member of the panel of the inquiry, a person appointed as legal adviser to the inquiry, a person who is a relevant party to the proceedings, a person representing such a person for the purposes of the proceedings, or a person performing functions necessary for the proper functioning of the proceedings. But sub-paragraph (1) does not permit any disclosure which has not been made in accordance with paragraph 22(1). In this paragraph “relevant party”, in relation to any proceedings of an inquiry, means— any person making a disclosure to the panel of the inquiry, or to a person appointed as legal adviser to the inquiry, in accordance with paragraph 22(1); any person giving evidence to the inquiry in circumstances where, in the absence of sub-paragraph (1), the prohibition imposed by section 56(1) would be breached; any person whose conduct is the interception-related conduct (within the meaning of section 56) to which the disclosure or evidence relates (whether or not that conduct has in fact occurred); any other person to whom the subject-matter of the disclosure or evidence has been lawfully disclosed in accordance with section 58. Any reference in this paragraph to a person appointed as legal adviser to an inquiry is to be read in accordance with paragraph 22(3). a disclosure to a person (the “nominated person”) nominated under paragraph 3(1) of Schedule 10 to the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 (investigation by judge or former judge) to conduct an investigation into a person's death, or a disclosure to a person appointed as legal adviser to an inquest forming part of an investigation conducted by the nominated person, where, in the course of the investigation, the nominated person has ordered the disclosure to be made to the nominated person alone or (as the case may be) to the nominated person and any person appointed as legal adviser to the inquest. The nominated person may order a disclosure under sub-paragraph (1) only if the person considers that the exceptional circumstances of the case make the disclosure essential in the interests of justice. In a case where a person who is not a nominated person is or has been conducting an investigation under Part 1 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 into a person's death, nothing in section 56(1) prohibits— a disclosure to the person that there is intercepted material in existence which is, or may be, relevant to the investigation; a disclosure to a person appointed as legal adviser to an inquest forming part of the investigation which is made for the purposes of determining— whether any intercepted material is, or may be, relevant to the investigation, and if so, whether it is necessary for the material to be disclosed to the person conducting the investigation. In sub-paragraph (3) “intercepted material” means— any content of an intercepted communication (within the meaning of section 56), or any secondary data obtained from a communication. Any reference in this paragraph to a person appointed as legal adviser to an inquest is a reference to a person appointed as solicitor or counsel to the inquest. a disclosure to a relevant coroner conducting an NI investigation or inquest, or a disclosure to a qualified person— appointed as legal adviser to an inquest conducted by the coroner, or employed under section 11(3) of the Coroners Act (Northern Ireland) 1959 (c. 15) (“the 1959 Act”) by a relevant coroner to assist the coroner in an investigation conducted by the coroner, where, in the course of the investigation or inquest, the relevant coroner (“C”) has ordered the disclosure to be made to C alone or (as the case may be) to C and any qualified person appointed or employed by C as mentioned in paragraph (b). A relevant coroner may order a disclosure under sub-paragraph (1) only if the coroner considers that the exceptional circumstances of the case make the disclosure essential in the interests of justice. In a case where a coroner (“C”) conducting, or who has been conducting, an NI investigation or inquest is not a relevant coroner, nothing in section 56(1) prohibits— a disclosure to C that there is intercepted material in existence which is, or may be, relevant to the investigation or inquest; a disclosure to a qualified person appointed by C as legal adviser to the inquest or employed by C under section 11(3) of the 1959 Act to assist C in the investigation, which is made for the purposes of determining— In sub-paragraph (3) “intercepted material” means— “the 1959 Act” has the meaning given by sub-paragraph (1); “coroner” means a coroner appointed under section 2 of the 1959 Act; “NI investigation or inquest” means an investigation under section 11(1) of the 1959 Act or an inquest under section 13 or 14 of that Act; “qualified person” means a member of the Bar of Northern Ireland, or a solicitor of the Court of Judicature of Northern Ireland); “relevant coroner” means a coroner who is a judge of the High Court or of a county court in Northern Ireland. a disclosure to a relevant person conducting an inquiry under the Inquiries into Fatal Accidents and Sudden Deaths etc. (Scotland) Act 2016 (2016 asp 2) (“IFASDA 2016”), or a disclosure to a qualified person appointed under section 24 of that Act to assist a relevant person in the inquiry, where, in the course of the inquiry, the person conducting the inquiry has ordered the disclosure to be made to that person alone or (as the case may be) to that person and any qualified person appointed to assist a relevant person in the inquiry. A relevant person may order a disclosure under sub-paragraph (1) only if the person considers that the exceptional circumstances of the case make the disclosure essential in the interests of justice. a disclosure to a relevant person conducting an inquiry under IFASDA 2016, or that there is intercepted material in existence which is, or may be, relevant to the inquiry. In this paragraph “relevant person” means— a sheriff principal, a temporary sheriff principal, or a sheriff or part-time sheriff (but not a summary sheriff or part-time summary sheriff) designated as a specialist under section 37(1) or (3) of IFASDA 2016. In this paragraph “qualified person” means an advocate or solicitor; and “advocate” and “solicitor” have the same meaning as in IFASDA 2016 (see section 40 of that Act). (1) Relevant public authority (2) Paragraphs of section 60A(7) specified (3) DSO: minimum office, rank or position (4) Type of communications data that may be obtained by DSO (5) Paragraphs of section 61(7) specified for DSO (6) Paragraphs of section 61A(7) specified for DSO In the table in Part 1 of this Schedule— “entity data” means any communications data which is entity data. The following provisions apply where the functions of the Secretary of State under section 67 are exercisable by a public authority by virtue of regulations under section 83(1). The measures adopted or arrangements made by the public authority for the purpose of complying with the requirements of section 69 must be such as are approved by the Secretary of State. Any report required by section 69(6)(b) or (8) must be made to the Secretary of State as well as to the Investigatory Powers Commissioner. A public authority, when exercising functions by virtue of regulations under section 83(1), must at least once in each calendar year make a report to the Secretary of State on— the discharge of the functions, and such other matters as the Secretary of State may by regulations require. Regulations under section 83(1) may, in particular, modify sub-paragraph (1) as it has effect in relation to the calendar year in which the regulations come into force or are revoked. The Secretary of State may agree to a report under this paragraph being combined with any other report which the public authority concerned is required to, or may, make to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may, in connection with regulations under section 83(1), make a scheme for the transfer of property, rights or liabilities. The things that may be transferred under a transfer scheme include— property, rights and liabilities which could not otherwise be transferred, property acquired, and rights and liabilities arising, after the making of the scheme. A transfer scheme may make consequential, supplementary, incidental, transitional, transitory or saving provision and may, in particular— create rights, or impose liabilities, in relation to property or rights transferred, make provision about the continuing effect of things done by, on behalf of or in relation to the transferor in respect of anything transferred, make provision about the continuation of things (including legal proceedings) in the process of being done by, on behalf of or in relation to the transferor in respect of anything transferred, make provision for references to the transferor in an instrument or other document in respect of anything transferred to be treated as references to the transferee, make provision for the shared ownership or use of property, if the TUPE regulations do not apply in relation to the transfer, make provision which is the same or similar. A transfer scheme may provide— for modification by agreement, for modifications to have effect from the date when the original scheme came into effect. A transfer scheme may confer a discretion on the Secretary of State to pay compensation to any person whose interests are adversely affected by the scheme. A transfer scheme may be included in regulations under section 83(1) but, if not so included, must be laid before Parliament after being made. For the purposes of this paragraph references to rights and liabilities include references to— rights and liabilities relating to a contract of employment, and rights and liabilities of the Crown relating to the terms of employment of individuals in the civil service. Accordingly, a transfer scheme may, in particular, provide— for— an individual employed in the civil service to become an employee of the transferee, or an employee of the transferor to become an employee of the transferee or an individual employed in the civil service, the individual's terms of employment in the civil service to have effect (subject to any necessary modifications) as the terms of the individual's contract of employment with the transferee, or (as the case may be) the individual's contract of employment to have effect (subject to any necessary modifications) as the terms of the individual's contract of employment with the transferee or, where the transferee is the Secretary of State, the individual's terms of employment with the civil service, for the transfer of rights and liabilities of the Crown or another public authority under or in connection with the individual's terms of employment. “civil service” means the civil service of the State, “TUPE regulations” means the Transfer of Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations 2006 (S.I. 2006/246), and references to the transfer of property include the grant of a lease. The Treasury may by regulations make provision varying the way in which a relevant tax has effect in relation to— anything transferred under a transfer scheme, or anything done for the purposes of, or in relation to, a transfer under a transfer scheme. The provision which may be made under sub-paragraph (1)(a) includes, in particular, provision for— a tax provision not to apply, or to apply with modifications, in relation to anything transferred, anything transferred to be treated in a specified way for the purposes of a tax provision, the Secretary of State to be required or permitted to determine, or specify the method for determining, anything which needs to be determined for the purposes of any tax provision so far as relating to anything transferred. The provision which may be made under sub-paragraph (1)(b) includes, in particular, provision for— a tax provision not to apply, or to apply with modifications, in relation to anything done for the purposes of, or in relation to, the transfer, anything done for the purposes of, or in relation to, the transfer to have or not have a specified consequence or be treated in a specified way, the Secretary of State to be required or permitted to determine, or specify the method for determining, anything which needs to be determined for the purposes of any tax provision so far as relating to anything done for the purposes of, or in relation to, the transfer. “relevant tax” means income tax, corporation tax, capital gains tax, stamp duty, stamp duty reserve tax or stamp duty land tax, “tax provision” means any provision— about a relevant tax, and made by an enactment, “transfer scheme” means a transfer scheme under paragraph 3, The power to make regulations under section 83(1) includes, in particular, power to— modify any enactment about a public authority for the purpose of enabling or otherwise facilitating any function under sections 67 to 69 to be exercisable by the public authority, impose requirements or confer other functions on a public authority in connection with functions transferred by the regulations. The power to make regulations under— section 83, or paragraph 4 above, including that power as extended (whether by section 267(1) or otherwise) may, in particular, be exercised by modifying any enactment (including this Act). This paragraph applies for the purposes of the first three entries in Part 1 of the table. A police force (police force 1) is a collaborative force in relation to another police force (police force 2) if— the chief officers of both police forces are parties to the same agreement under section 22A of the Police Act 1996, and the members of police force 1 are permitted by the terms of the agreement to make applications under section 106 to the chief officer of police force 2. A National Crime Agency officer is included in a collaboration agreement with a police force if— the Director General of the National Crime Agency and the chief officer of the police force are parties to the same agreement under section 22A of the Police Act 1996, and the National Crime Agency officer is permitted by the terms of the agreement to make applications under section 106 to the chief officer of the police force. This paragraph applies for the purposes of the sixth entry in Part 1 of the table (which relates to the National Crime Agency). A police force is a collaborative police force in relation to the National Crime Agency if— the chief officer of the police force and the Director General of the National Crime Agency are parties to the same agreement under section 22A of the Police Act 1996, and the members of the police force are permitted by the terms of the agreement to make applications under section 106 to the Director General of the National Crime Agency. For the purpose of the sixth entry in Part 2 of the table, the reference to a staff officer of the Police Investigations and Review Commissioner is a reference to any person who— is a member of the Commissioner's staff appointed under paragraph 7A of schedule 4 to the Police, Public Order and Criminal Justice (Scotland) Act 2006 (asp 10), or is a member of the Commissioner's staff appointed under paragraph 7 of that schedule to whom paragraph 7B(2) of that schedule applies. In this Schedule, “police force” means— the City of London police force. The Secretary of State must issue one or more codes of practice about the exercise of functions conferred by virtue of this Act. Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply in relation to— any functions conferred by virtue of this Act on— the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or any other Judicial Commissioner, the Information Commissioner, the Investigatory Powers Tribunal, any other court or tribunal, the Technical Advisory Board, or the Technology Advisory Panel, any function to make subordinate legislation which is conferred by virtue of this Act on the Secretary of State or the Treasury. A code may, in particular, contain provision about the training of people who may exercise functions in relation to which sub-paragraph (1) applies. Each code must include— provision designed to protect the public interest in the confidentiality of sources of journalistic information, and provision about particular considerations applicable to any data which relates to a member of a profession which routinely holds items subject to legal privilege or relevant confidential information. A code about the exercise of functions conferred by virtue of Part 2, Part 5 or Chapter 1 or 3 of Part 6 must also contain provision about when circumstances are to be regarded as “exceptional and compelling circumstances” for the purposes of any provision of that Part or Chapter that restricts the exercise of functions in relation to items subject to legal privilege by reference to the existence of such circumstances. The Investigatory Powers Commissioner must keep under review any provision included in a code by virtue of sub-paragraph (2). “relevant confidential information” means information which is held in confidence by a member of a profession and consists of— personal records or journalistic material which are (or would be if held in England and Wales) excluded material as defined by section 11 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, or communications between Members of Parliament and their constituents, and the references in this paragraph to a member of a profession include references to any person acting in the course of any trade, business, profession or other occupation or for the purposes of any paid or unpaid office. A code about the exercise of functions conferred by virtue of Part 3 must contain provision about communications data held by public authorities by virtue of that Part. Such provision must, in particular, include provision about— why, how and where the data is held, who may access the data on behalf of the authority, to whom, and under what conditions, the data may be disclosed, the processing of the data for purposes otherwise than in connection with the purposes for which it was obtained or retained, the processing of the data together with other data, the processes for determining how long the data should be held and for the destruction of the data. Before issuing a code the Secretary of State must— prepare and publish a draft of the code, and consider any representations made about it, and may modify the draft. The Secretary of State must, in particular, consult the Investigatory Powers Commissioner and, in the case of a code relating to the exercise of functions conferred by virtue of Part 4, the Information Commissioner. A code comes into force in accordance with regulations made by the Secretary of State. A statutory instrument containing such regulations may not be made unless a draft of the instrument has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament. When a draft instrument is laid, the code to which it relates must also be laid. No draft instrument may be laid until the consultation required by sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) has taken place. The Secretary of State may from time to time revise the whole or part of a code. Before issuing any revision of a code the Secretary of State must— prepare and publish a draft, and A revision of a code comes into force in accordance with regulations made by the Secretary of State. A statutory instrument containing such regulations must be laid before Parliament if the regulations have been made without a draft having been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament. When an instrument or draft instrument is laid, the revision of a code to which it relates must also be laid. No instrument or draft instrument may be laid until the consultation required by sub-paragraphs (2) and (3) has taken place. A person must have regard to a code when exercising any functions to which the code relates. A failure on the part of a person to comply with any provision of a code does not of itself make that person liable to criminal or civil proceedings. A code is admissible in evidence in any such proceedings. A court or tribunal may, in particular, take into account a failure by a person to have regard to a code in determining a question in any such proceedings. A supervisory authority exercising functions by virtue of this Act may take into account a failure by a person to have regard to a code in determining a question which arises in connection with the exercise of those functions. In this paragraph “supervisory authority” means— the Information Commissioner, or the Investigatory Powers Tribunal. The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a warrant that combines a targeted interception warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 19(1) with one or more of the following— a targeted examination warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 19(2); a targeted equipment interference warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 102(1); a targeted examination warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 102(3); a warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 5 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (warrants for entry or interference with property or wireless telegraphy); an authorisation under section 28 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (authorisation of directed surveillance); an authorisation under section 32 of that Act (authorisation of intrusive surveillance). The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the Chief of Defence Intelligence, issue a warrant that combines a targeted interception warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 19(1) with one or more of the following— a targeted equipment interference warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 104; The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of a relevant intercepting authority, issue a warrant that combines a targeted interception warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 19(1) with one or more of the following— a targeted equipment interference warrant which a law enforcement chief has power to issue under section 106; an authorisation under section 93 of the Police Act 1997 (authorisations to interfere with property); For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), each of the following is a “relevant intercepting authority”— the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs. The Scottish Ministers may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a warrant that combines a targeted interception warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 21(1) with one or more of the following— a targeted examination warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 21(2); a targeted equipment interference warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 103(1); a targeted examination warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 103(2); a warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 5 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (warrants for entry or interference with property or wireless telegraphy).

The Scottish Ministers may, on an application made by or on behalf of the chief constable of the Police Service of Scotland, issue a warrant that combines a targeted interception warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 21(1) with one or more of the following— an authorisation under section 6 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000 (2000 asp 11) (authorisation of directed surveillance); an authorisation under section 10 of that Act (authorisation of intrusive surveillance). The Scottish Ministers may, on an application made by or on behalf of a relevant intercepting authority, issue a warrant that combines a targeted interception warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 21(1) with one or more of the following— an authorisation under section 93 of the Police Act 1997 (authorisations to interfere with property). The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a warrant that combines a targeted equipment interference warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 102(1) with one or more of the following— The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the Chief of Defence Intelligence, issue a warrant that combines a targeted equipment interference warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 104 with one or more of the following— The Scottish Ministers may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a warrant that combines a targeted equipment interference warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 103(1) with one or more of the following— A law enforcement chief may, on an application made by a person who is an appropriate law enforcement officer in relation to the chief, issue a warrant that combines a targeted equipment interference warrant which the law enforcement chief has power to issue under section 106 with one or more of the following— For the purposes of this paragraph, references to a “law enforcement chief” and an “appropriate law enforcement officer” are to be read in accordance with section 106(5). A law enforcement chief within sub-paragraph (2) may, on an application made by a person who is an appropriate law enforcement officer in relation to the chief, issue a warrant that combines a targeted equipment interference warrant which the law enforcement chief has power to issue under section 106 with one or more of the following— The law enforcement chiefs mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) are— the chief constable of the Police Service of Scotland, and The Secretary of State may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a warrant that combines— a targeted examination warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 19(2), with a targeted examination warrant which the Secretary of State has power to issue under section 102(3). The Scottish Ministers may, on an application made by or on behalf of the head of an intelligence service, issue a warrant that combines— a targeted examination warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 21(2), with a targeted examination warrant which the Scottish Ministers have power to issue under section 103(2). In this Part of this Schedule “combined warrant” means a warrant issued under any of Parts 1 to 3 of this Schedule. Where Part 1, 2 or 3 of this Schedule provides for a person to have power, on an application made by or on behalf of any person (“the applicant”), to issue a combined warrant that includes any warrant or other authorisation, the person may issue a combined warrant containing that warrant or authorisation, whether or not that person would have power, on an application made by or on behalf of the applicant, to issue that warrant, or to give that authorisation, as a single instrument. Where Part 1, 2 or 3 of this Schedule provides for a person to have power to apply for a combined warrant, the person may apply for a combined warrant containing any warrant or other authorisation that may be included in it, provided that— the person could apply for that warrant or authorisation as a single instrument, or the organisation on whose behalf the person is acting, or another person who is a member of staff or an officer of the organisation or who is otherwise acting on its behalf, could apply for that warrant or authorisation as a single instrument. A combined warrant must be addressed to the person by whom, or on whose behalf, the application for the combined warrant was made. Any reference in this Act to the person to whom a warrant is or was addressed is to be read, in the case of a combined warrant containing such a warrant, as a reference to the person to whom the combined warrant is or was addressed. A combined warrant must contain a provision stating which warrants or other authorisations are included in the combined warrant. Any reference in any enactment to a warrant or other authorisation of a particular description issued or given under any enactment includes, in the case of a combined warrant containing a warrant or authorisation of that description, a reference to so much of the combined warrant as consists of such a warrant or authorisation. This is subject to any provision made by or under the following provisions of this Schedule. The law about the following matters, so far as relating to a warrant or other authorisation that may be included in a combined warrant, applies in relation to so much of a combined warrant as consists of such a warrant or authorisation— the duties imposed by section 2 (general duties in relation to privacy); any conditions that must be met before such a warrant or authorisation may be issued or given; the grounds on which such a warrant or authorisation may be issued or given; the conduct that may be authorised by such a warrant or authorisation; any requirements as to what must be included in such a warrant or authorisation; any conditions that must be met before such a warrant or authorisation may be renewed and the grounds on which it may be renewed; any conditions that must be met before such a warrant or authorisation may be modified; the grounds on which such a warrant or authorisation may be modified and the procedural rules that apply to such a modification; the circumstances in which such a warrant or authorisation may or must be cancelled. In sub-paragraph (1)(h) “procedural rules”, in relation to the modification of a warrant or other authorisation, means the law about any of the following matters— the involvement of Judicial Commissioners in decisions; the delegation of decisions; the signing of instruments making a modification; urgent cases. Sub-paragraph (1) is subject to paragraphs 21 to 26. A combined warrant under Part 1 of this Schedule addressed to any person may only be issued, renewed or cancelled in accordance with the procedural rules that would apply to the issue, renewal or cancellation of a targeted interception warrant addressed to that person (see Chapter 1 of Part 2 of this Act). In sub-paragraph (1) “procedural rules”, in relation to a warrant, means the law about any of the following matters— the signing of warrants; But if a combined warrant under paragraph 1 or 4 includes a warrant which the person issuing the combined warrant has power to issue under section 5 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (a “section 5 warrant”), any requirement (arising from sub-paragraph (1) above) for the involvement of Judicial Commissioners in the decision whether to issue or renew the combined warrant does not apply in relation to the part of the combined warrant consisting of the section 5 warrant. A combined warrant under Part 2 of this Schedule addressed to any person may only be issued, renewed or cancelled in accordance with the procedural rules that would apply to the issue, renewal or cancellation of a targeted equipment interference warrant addressed to that person (see Part 5 of this Act). In sub-paragraph (1) “procedural rules” has the same meaning as in paragraph 21(1). But if a combined warrant under paragraph 8 or 10 includes a warrant which the person issuing the combined warrant has power to issue under section 5 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (a “section 5 warrant”), any requirement (arising from sub-paragraph (1) above) for the involvement of Judicial Commissioners in the decision whether to issue or renew the combined warrant does not apply in relation to the part of the combined warrant consisting of the section 5 warrant. A combined warrant under Part 3 of this Schedule addressed to any person may only be issued, renewed or cancelled in accordance with the procedural rules that would apply to the issue, renewal or cancellation of a targeted examination warrant under section 19(2) addressed to that person (see Chapter 1 of Part 2 of this Act). In consequence of paragraphs 21 and 22, the following provisions of the Police Act 1997 do not apply in relation to an authorisation under section 93 of that Act which is included in a combined warrant— section 96 (notification of authorisations to Judicial Commissioner); section 97 (authorisations requiring approval); section 103(1), (2) and (4) (power to quash or cancel authorisations); section 104 (appeals to Investigatory Powers Commissioner). Section 103(6) of that Act applies where a combined warrant containing an authorisation under section 93 of that Act is cancelled as it applies where such an authorisation is cancelled under section 103(4) of that Act. In consequence of paragraphs 21 and 22, the following provisions of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 do not apply in relation to an authorisation under section 32 of that Act which is included in a combined warrant— section 35 (notification of authorisations to Judicial Commissioner); section 36 (approval required for authorisations to take effect); section 37(2) to (4) (power to quash or cancel authorisations); section 38 (appeals to Investigatory Powers Commissioner). In consequence of paragraphs 21 and 22, the following provisions of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000 do not apply in relation to an authorisation under section 10 of that Act which is included in a combined warrant— section 13 (notification of authorisations to Judicial Commissioner); section 14 (approval required for authorisations to take effect); section 15(1) to (3) (power to quash or cancel authorisations); section 16 (appeals to Investigatory Powers Commissioner). Where a combined warrant includes warrants or authorisations which (as single instruments) would cease to have effect at the end of different periods, the combined warrant is to cease to have effect at the end of the shortest of the periods (unless renewed). But sub-paragraph (1) does not apply to a combined warrant which— includes an authorisation under section 28 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (authorisation of directed surveillance), is addressed to the head of an intelligence service, and is issued with the approval of a Judicial Commissioner. In such a case, the combined warrant (unless it is renewed) is to cease to have effect at the end of the period of 6 months beginning with the day on which it is issued. In the case of a combined warrant which— includes an authorisation under section 32 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (authorisation of intrusive surveillance), and is addressed to the head of an intelligence service, sub-paragraph (1) has effect as if in section 44 of that Act (special rules for intelligence services authorisations) subsection (3), and the reference to that subsection in subsection (4), were omitted. This paragraph applies where under section 24(3) a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve a decision to issue a combined warrant under Part 1 or 3 of this Schedule. Section 25 has effect in relation to the combined warrant as if— any reference in subsection (3) of that section to a targeted interception warrant or targeted examination warrant were a reference to so much of the combined warrant as consisted of such a warrant, and any other reference in that section to a warrant were a reference to the combined warrant. Where the combined warrant included a targeted equipment interference warrant or targeted examination warrant which the person who issued the combined warrant has power to issue under Part 5 of this Act, section 110 has effect in relation to the combined warrant as if— any reference in subsection (3)(b) or (c) of that section to a targeted equipment interference warrant were a reference to so much of the combined warrant as consisted of such a warrant, any reference in subsection (4) of that section to a targeted examination warrant were a reference to so much of the combined warrant as consisted of such a warrant, and Where under section 109(3) a Judicial Commissioner refuses to approve the decision to issue a combined warrant under Part 2 of this Schedule, section 110 has effect in relation to the combined warrant as if— This paragraph applies to any provision in Part 2 or 5 of this Act that enables a person to whom a warrant is addressed to require the provision of assistance in giving effect to the warrant. In the case of a combined warrant containing such a warrant, the provision is to be read as enabling the person to whom the combined warrant is addressed to require the provision of assistance in giving effect to so much of the combined warrant as consists of such a warrant. Accordingly, any power to serve a copy of a warrant for that purpose includes power, in the case of such a combined warrant, to serve the part of the combined warrant consisting of such a warrant. Any reference in section 56 (exclusion of matters from legal proceedings etc.) to the making of an application for a warrant, or the issue of a warrant, under Chapter 1 of Part 2 of this Act includes a reference to— the making of an application for a combined warrant that includes a warrant under that Chapter, so far as relating to disclosing or suggesting the inclusion of such a warrant, or the inclusion of a warrant under that Chapter in a combined warrant. The reference in section 58(7) to the provisions of Part 2 of this Act is to be read, in the case of a combined warrant containing a targeted interception warrant or targeted examination warrant which the person who issued the combined warrant has power to issue under that Part, as including a reference to this Schedule. The reference in section 133(4) to the provisions of Part 5 of this Act is to be read, in the case of a combined warrant containing a targeted equipment interference warrant or targeted examination warrant which the person who issued the combined warrant has power to issue under that Part, as including a reference to this Schedule. The Secretary of State may by regulations make such provision modifying any provision made by or under an enactment (including this Schedule) as the Secretary of State considers appropriate in consequence of any provision made by this Schedule. In sub-paragraph (1) “enactment” does not include any primary legislation passed or made after the end of the Session in which this Act is passed. Any agreement which, immediately before the day on which section 10 comes into force, is designated for the purposes of section 1(4) of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 is to be treated, on and after that day, as designated as an international mutual assistance agreement by regulations under section 10(3) of this Act. The reference to the Gangmasters and Labour Abuse Authority in the table in Part 1 of Schedule 4 is to be read, in relation to any time before the day on which section 10(1) of the Immigration Act 2016 (renaming of Gangmasters Licensing Authority) comes into force, as a reference to the Gangmasters Licensing Authority. A retention notice under section 1 of the Data Retention and Investigatory Powers Act 2014 which is in force immediately before the commencement day is to be treated, on or after that day, as a retention notice under section 87 of this Act; and Part 4 of this Act is to be read accordingly but as if sections 87(1)(b), (4) and (8)(e), 89, 90(1) to (12), 91, 94(4)(b), (6), (10) and (12) and 96(2)(e) were omitted. In particular— anything which, immediately before the commencement day, is in the process of being done by virtue of, or in relation to, a retention notice under section 1 of the Act of 2014 may be continued as if being done by virtue of, or in relation to, a retention notice under section 87 of this Act, and anything done by virtue of, or in relation to, a retention notice under section 1 of the Act of 2014 is, if in force or effective immediately before the commencement day, to have effect as if done by virtue of, or in relation to, a retention notice under section 87 of this Act so far as that is required for continuing its effect on or after the commencement day. Sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) cease to apply, in relation to any retention notice under section 1 of the Act of 2014— at the end of the period of six months beginning with the commencement day, or if earlier, on the revocation in full of the notice; but this is without prejudice to the continued operation of section 95(2) to (5) in relation to the notice. Section 249 applies in relation to costs incurred in complying with a retention notice under section 1 of the Act of 2014 which has continued in force on or after the commencement day as it applies in relation to costs incurred in complying with retention notices under section 87 of this Act but as if section 249(7) were omitted. The Secretary of State may revoke (whether wholly or in part) a retention notice under section 1 of the Act of 2014. The fact that a retention notice under section 1 of the Act of 2014 has, in relation to a particular description of data and a particular operator (or description of operators), ceased to have effect or been revoked does not prevent the giving of a retention notice under section 87 of this Act in relation to the same description of data and the same operator (or description of operators). In this paragraph “the commencement day” is the day on which section 1(1) of the Act of 2014 is repealed. Sub-paragraph (2) applies if any power to give, vary or confirm a retention notice under section 87 of this Act (excluding any power to vary a notice which has effect as such a notice by virtue of paragraph 3(1)) is brought into force without any requirement for approval by a Judicial Commissioner of the decision to give, vary or (as the case may be) confirm the notice. The notice as given, varied or confirmed ceases to have effect (so far as not previously revoked) at the end of the period of three months beginning with the day on which the requirement for approval comes into force. The repeal of section 1(7) of the Data Retention and Investigatory Powers Act 2014 does not affect the continued operation, during the transitional period mentioned in sub-paragraph (2), of regulations made under section 1(7) of that Act. The transitional period mentioned in this sub-paragraph is the period of six months beginning with the day on which section 1(7) of the Act of 2014 is repealed. In their continued operation by virtue of sub-paragraph (1), the regulations made under section 1(7) of the Act of 2014 have effect subject to such modifications (if any) as may be specified in regulations under section 270(2). The definitions of— “serious crime” in section 86(2A), “serious crime” in section 87(10B), and “serious crime” in section 263(1), are to be read, until the appointed day, as if for the words “the age of 18 (or, in relation to Scotland or Northern Ireland, 21)” there were substituted “ the age of 21 ”. In sub-paragraph (1), “the appointed day” means the day on which the amendment made to section 81(3)(a) of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 by paragraph 211 of Schedule 7 to the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 comes into force. Nothing in this Act affects any power conferred on a postal operator (within the meaning given by section 27(3) of the Postal Services Act 2011) by or under any enactment to open, detain or delay any postal packet (within the meaning given by section 125(1) of the Postal Services Act 2000) or to deliver any such packet to a person other than the person to whom it is addressed. Nothing in Part 4 of this Act prevents the retention of data for the purposes of, or in connection with, legal proceedings (including proceedings which might arise in the future). The amendments made to the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 by sections 3 to 6 of the Data Retention and Investigatory Powers Act 2014 (and those sections) continue to have effect despite section 8(3) of the Act of 2014 (sunset provision for that Act) until the provisions they amend (and those sections) are repealed by this Act in connection with the coming into force of provisions of this Act. Nothing in any of the provisions of this Act by virtue of which conduct of any description is or may be authorised by any warrant, authorisation or notice, or by virtue of which information may be obtained in any manner, is to be read— as making it unlawful to engage in any conduct of that description which is not otherwise unlawful under this Act and would not be unlawful apart from this Act, as otherwise requiring— the issue, grant or giving of such a warrant, authorisation or notice, or the taking of any step for or towards obtaining the authority of such a warrant, authorisation or notice, before any such conduct of that description is engaged in, or as prejudicing any power to obtain information by any means not involving conduct that may be authorised under this Act. In section 93(1A) of the Police Act 1997 (authorisations to interfere with property etc.) after “this Part” insert “ or the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In paragraph 9(1) of Schedule 3 to the Northern Ireland Act 1998 (reserved matters) for paragraph (a) substitute— the subject-matter of Parts 2 and 3 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, so far as relating to the prevention or detection of crime (within the meaning of that Act) or the prevention of disorder; the subject-matter of the following provisions of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, so far as relating to the prevention or detection of serious crime (within the meaning of that Act)— sections 3 to 10 and Schedule 1, Part 2, and Chapter 1 of Part 6; the subject-matter of section 11, Parts 3 and 4 and Chapter 2 of Part 6 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, so far as relating to the prevention or detection of crime (within the meaning of that Act) or the prevention of disorder; the subject-matter of section 12 of, and Schedule 2 to, the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, so far as relating to the prevention or detection of crime (within the meaning of that Act); The Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 is amended as follows. In section 27(4)(a) (lawful surveillance etc: conduct to be dealt with under other enactments) after “Act” insert “ or the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. Section 71 (issue and revision of codes of practice) is amended as follows. In subsection (2)(a), for “Parts I to III” substitute “ Parts 2 and 3 ”. Omit subsection (2A). In subsection (8) for “(2A)” substitute “ (3) ”. Section 81(1) (general definitions) is amended as follows. For the definition of “apparatus” substitute— “apparatus” has the same meaning as in the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (see section 263(1) of that Act); In paragraph (a) of the definition of “communication” omit “(except in the definition of “postal service” in section 2(1))”. In the definition of “interception” and cognate expressions, for “section 2” substitute “ sections 4 and 5 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. For the definitions of “postal service” and “public postal service” substitute— “postal service” has the same meaning as in the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (see section 262(7) of that Act); Omit the definitions of “private telecommunication system”, “public telecommunications service” and “public telecommunication system”. In the definitions of “telecommunication system” and “telecommunications service”, for “the meanings given by section 2(1)” substitute “ the same meanings as in the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (see section 261(11) to (13) of that Act) ”. In paragraph 28(4) of Schedule 19C to the Political Parties, Elections and Referendums Act 2000 (civil sanctions: disclosure of information) for paragraph (b) substitute— any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016. The Public Finance and Accountability (Scotland) Act 2000 is amended as follows. In section 26B(3) (voluntary disclosure of data to Audit Scotland) for paragraph (b) substitute— which is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, In section 26C(3) (power to require disclosure of data) for paragraph (b) substitute— the disclosure is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016. In section 4(1)(b) of the Social Security Fraud Act 2001 (arrangements for payments in relation to persons providing a telecommunications service etc.) for “the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 4(1)(b) of the Social Security Fraud Act (Northern Ireland) 2001 (arrangements for payments in relation to persons providing a telecommunications service etc.) for “the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 5A(3)(b) of the Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (disclosure of information to the Northern Ireland Judicial Appointments Commission) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 is amended as follows. In section 436(3)(b) (disclosure of information to certain Directors) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 438(8)(b) (disclosure of information by certain Directors) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 439(3)(b) (disclosure of information to Lord Advocate and to Scottish Ministers) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 441(7)(b) (disclosure of information by Lord Advocate and by Scottish Ministers) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In paragraph 19ZA(2)(c) of Schedule 3 to the Police Reform Act 2002 (handling of complaints and conduct matters etc: power to serve information notice) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In Article 4C(3)(b) of the Audit and Accountability (Northern Ireland) Order 2003 (voluntary provision of data) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 64C(3)(b) of the Public Audit (Wales) Act 2004 (voluntary provision of data) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 107(3)(b) of the Constitutional Reform Act 2005 (disclosure of information to the Judicial Appointments Commission) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 22(b) of the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005 (data protection, etc) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. The Serious Crime Act 2007 is amended as follows. In section 68(4)(b) (disclosure of information to prevent fraud) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 85(8)(b) (disclosure of information by Revenue and Customs) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 169(3)(b) of the Legal Services Act 2007 (disclosure of information to the Legal Services Board) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 70(4) of the Regulatory Enforcement and Sanctions Act 2008 (disclosure of information) for paragraph (b) substitute— In section 20(2)(b) of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (disclosure and the intelligence services: supplementary provisions) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 19(1)(b) of the Borders, Citizenship and Immigration Act 2009 (application of statutory provisions) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. The Marine and Coastal Access Act 2009 is amended as follows. In paragraph 13(5) of Schedule 7 (further provision about civil sanctions under Part 4: disclosure of information) for paragraph (b) substitute— In paragraph 9(5) of Schedule 10 (further provision about fixed monetary penalties under section 142: disclosure of information) for paragraph (b) substitute— In paragraph 12(5) of Schedule 2 to the Marine (Scotland) Act 2010 (further provision about civil sanctions under Part 4: disclosure of information) for paragraph (b) substitute— In section 59(1)(b) of the Charities Act 2011 (disclosure: supplementary) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 4(6) of the Prisons (Interference with Wireless Telegraphy) Act 2012 (meaning of “telecommunication system”) for “Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (see section 261(13) of that Act) ”. In paragraph 1(b) of Schedule 7 to the Crime and Courts Act 2013 (information: restrictions on disclosure) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In paragraph 8(5) of Schedule 2 to the Marine Act (Northern Ireland) 2013 (further provision about fixed monetary penalties under section 35: disclosure of information) for paragraph (b) substitute— In paragraph 3(3)(b) of Schedule 9 to the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014 (data matching: voluntary provision of data) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In paragraph 7(4)(b) of Schedule 4 to the Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014 (ASB case reviews: information) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In paragraph 6(b) of Schedule 6 to the Immigration Act 2014 (information) for “Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. Omit sections 4(1), 7 and 8 of the Data Retention and Investigatory Powers Act 2014 (introductory, review and final provisions). In section 1(5) of the Security Service Act 1989 (meaning of “prevention” and “detection”) for the words from “the provisions” to the end substitute “ that Act ”. In section 4(3) of the Official Secrets Act 1989 (crime and special investigation powers) omit the “and” after paragraph (a) and after paragraph (b) insert any information obtained under a warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 2 or Chapter 1 of Part 6 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, any information relating to the obtaining of information under such a warrant and any document or other article which is or has been used or held for use in, or has been obtained by reason of, the obtaining of information under such a warrant. In section 11(1A) of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (meaning of “prevention” and “detection”) for the words from “apply” to the end substitute “ apply for the purposes of this Act as it applies for the purposes of that Act, except that for the purposes of section 3 above it shall not include a reference to gathering evidence for use in any legal proceedings (within the meaning of that Act). ” The Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act 1996 is amended as follows. In section 3(7) (initial duty of prosecutor to disclose) for “section 17 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ section 56 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 7A(9) (continuing duty of prosecutor to disclose) for “section 17 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ section 56 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 8(6) (application by accused for disclosure) for “section 17 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ section 56 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 23 (code of practice) for subsection (6) substitute— The code must be so framed that it does not apply to any of the following— material intercepted in obedience to a warrant issued under section 2 of the Interception of Communications Act 1985; material intercepted under the authority of an interception warrant under section 5 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000; material obtained under the authority of a warrant issued under Chapter 1 of Part 2 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016; material obtained under the authority of a warrant issued under Chapter 1 of Part 6 of that Act. In section 133A of the Police Act 1997 (meaning of “prevention” and “detection”) for the words from “the provisions” to the end substitute “ that Act ”. In Section B8 of Part 2 of Schedule 5 to the Scotland Act 1998 (reserved matters: national security, interception of communications etc.), in the definition of “private telecommunication system”, for “section 2(1) of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ section 261(14) of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In paragraph 17 of Schedule 2 to the Northern Ireland Act 1998 (excepted matters) for paragraph (b) substitute— the subject-matter of sections 3 to 10, Schedule 1, Part 2 and Chapter 1 of Part 6 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, except so far as relating to the prevention or detection of serious crime (within the meaning of that Act); In section 394(7)(a) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (access to FCA or PRA material) for “section 17 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000” substitute “ section 56 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. Omit Chapter 1 of Part 1 (interception of communications). Section 49 (investigation of electronic data protected by encryption etc: powers under which data obtained) is amended as follows. In subsection (1)(b) after “communications” insert “ or obtain secondary data from communications ”. After subsection (9) insert— In subsection (1)(b) the reference to obtaining secondary data from communications is to be read in accordance with section 16 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016. In section 71 (issue and revision of codes of practice) omit subsection (10). In section 78(3)(a) (affirmative orders) omit “12(10), 13(3),”. Section 81 (general interpretation) is amended as follows. In subsection (1)— in the definition of “criminal”, omit “or prosecution”, and in the definition of “interception warrant”, for “a warrant under section 5” substitute a targeted interception warrant or mutual assistance warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 2 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, or a bulk interception warrant under Chapter 1 of Part 6 of that Act In subsection (4) omit the words from “; and references” to the end. In subsection (5) omit the words from “, except that” to the end. In section 82 (amendments, repeals and savings etc.) omit subsections (4) to (6). In section 159 of the Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010, for “section 17 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)” substitute “ section 56 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”. In section 6(4)(b) of the Justice and Security Act 2013 (declaration permitting closed material applications in proceedings) for sub-paragraph (iii) substitute— section 56(1) of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (exclusion for intercept material), Omit Chapter 2 of Part 1 (acquisition and disclosure of communications data). In section 49(1)(c) (investigation of electronic data protected by encryption etc: powers under which data obtained)— for the words from “section 22(3)” to “Part II” substitute “ Part 3 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 or Part 2 of this Act ”, and for “under section 22(4)” substitute “ in pursuance of an authorisation under Part 3 of the Act of 2016 or as the result of the issue of a warrant under Chapter 2 of Part 6 of the Act of 2016 ”. In section 71(2) (issue and revision of codes of practice) omit “23A or”. In section 78(3)(a) (affirmative orders) omit “22(9), 23A(6), 25(5),”. In section 81(9) (general interpretation: certain references relating to Northern Ireland) omit “23A(7)(b),”. Paragraph 19ZA of Schedule 3 to the Police Reform Act 2002 (investigations by the IPCC: information notices) is amended as follows. In sub-paragraph (3) omit— the words from “(within the meaning of Chapter 2” to “2000)”, and the words “(within the meaning of that Chapter)”. After sub-paragraph (3) insert— In sub-paragraph (3) “communications data”, “postal operator” and “telecommunications operator” have the same meanings as in the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (see sections 261 and 262 of that Act). Omit Part 11 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (retention of communications data). Omit sections 1 and 2 of the Data Retention and Investigatory Powers Act 2014 (retention of relevant communications data). In section 48 (interpretation of Part 2), in subsection (3)(c)— omit the “or” at the end of sub-paragraph (i); after sub-paragraph (ii) insert ; or Part 5, or Chapter 3 of Part 6, of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (equipment interference). Paragraph 2 of Schedule 2 (persons having the appropriate permission where data obtained under warrant etc) is amended as follows. In sub-paragraph (1)— omit the “or” at the end of paragraph (a); after paragraph (b) insert a targeted equipment interference warrant issued under section 106 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (powers of law enforcement chiefs to issue warrants to law enforcement officers). In sub-paragraph (5), at the end insert “ or under a targeted equipment interference warrant issued under section 106 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016. ” In sub-paragraph (6)— omit the “and” at the end of paragraph (b); after paragraph (c) insert ; and in relation to protected information obtained under a warrant issued under section 106 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, means the person who issued the warrant or, if that person was an appropriate delegate in relation to a law enforcement chief, either that person or the law enforcement chief. After sub-paragraph (6) insert— In sub-paragraph (6)(d), the references to a law enforcement chief and to an appropriate delegate in relation to a law enforcement chief are to be read in accordance with section 106(5) of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016. The Regulation of Investigatory Powers (Scotland) Act 2000 is amended as follows. In section 5(3) (lawful surveillance etc.), after paragraph (a) (and before the “or” at the end of the paragraph), insert— an enactment contained in Part 5 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (equipment interference) so far as relating to the Police Service; In section 24(2) (issue and revision of codes of practice), after paragraph (a) (and before the “and” at the end of the paragraph), insert— Part 5 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (equipment interference) so far as relating to the Police Service or the Police Investigations and Review Commissioner; In Schedule 1 to the Crime and Courts Act 2013 (the NCA and NCA officers), paragraph 6A (investigatory activity in Northern Ireland) is amended as follows. In sub-paragraph (3)— in the opening words, omit “an authorisation granted under any of the following provisions”; before paragraph (a) insert— a targeted equipment interference warrant under Part 5 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016; in paragraph (a), for “in the” substitute “ an authorisation granted under any of the following provisions of the ”; in paragraph (b), at the beginning insert “ an authorisation granted under ”. For the purpose of sub-paragraph (1), a relevant investigatory activity falling within sub-paragraph (3)(za) is to be regarded as carried out in Northern Ireland if (and to the extent that)— the equipment that is being interfered with under the warrant is in Northern Ireland, and at the time of the carrying out of the activity, the NCA officer knows that the equipment is in Northern Ireland. Sub-paragraph (6) applies where— in the carrying out by an NCA officer of a relevant investigatory activity falling within sub-paragraph (3)(za), equipment in Northern Ireland is interfered with under the warrant, at the time the interference begins, the NCA officer does not know that the equipment is in Northern Ireland, and at any time while the interference is continuing, the NCA officer becomes aware that the equipment is in Northern Ireland. The NCA officer is not to be regarded as in breach of sub-paragraph (1) if the interference continues after the NCA officer becomes aware that the equipment is in Northern Ireland, provided that the officer informs the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland about the interference as soon as reasonably practicable. The Police Act 1997 is amended as follows. In section 103(8) (appeals) for “the period” substitute “ any period ”. In section 105(1)(b)(iii) (reports of appeals dismissed) omit “under section 107(2),”. In section 108(1) (interpretation of Part 3) after the definition of “designated deputy” insert— “the Investigatory Powers Commissioner” and “Judicial Commissioner” have the same meanings as in the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (see section 263(1) of that Act); In section 37(9)(a) (appeals against decisions of ordinary Surveillance Commissioners) for “the period” substitute “ any period ”. In section 39(3) (appeals: reports of Chief Surveillance Commissioner)— for “Subsections (3) and (4) of section 107 of the Police Act 1997” substitute “ Subsections (6) to (8) of section 234 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 ”, and for “subsection (2) of that section” substitute “ subsection (1) of that section ”. Omit section 40 (information to be provided to Surveillance Commissioners). In section 51(7)(b) (notification to Intelligence Services Commissioner or Chief Surveillance Commissioner of certain directions relating to the disclosure of a key to protected information) for “the Commissioner in question” substitute “ the Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”. Section 64 (delegation of Commissioners' functions) is amended as follows. In the heading for “Commissioners' functions” substitute “ functions of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for Northern Ireland ”. omit “or any provision of an Act of the Scottish Parliament”, and for “a relevant Commissioner” substitute “ the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for Northern Ireland ”. Omit subsection (2). In section 71(2) (issue and revision of codes of practice) for “the Surveillance Commissioners” substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner ”. Section 72 (effect of codes of practice) is amended as follows. In subsection (4) for paragraphs (c) to (e) (and the word “or” between paragraphs (d) and (e)) substitute— the Investigatory Powers Commissioner for Northern Ireland carrying out functions under this Act, or the Investigatory Powers Commissioner or any other Judicial Commissioner carrying out functions under this Act, the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 or the Police Act 1997, Omit the definitions of “Assistant Surveillance Commissioner”, “ordinary Surveillance Commissioner”, “Surveillance Commissioner” and “Chief Surveillance Commissioner”. After the definition of “interception warrant” insert— In the cross-heading before section 2 (Surveillance Commissioners) for “Surveillance” substitute “ Judicial ”. In section 2(10) (restrictions on appeals against Commissioners)— for “Chief Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”, and for “other Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ other Judicial Commissioner ”. In the heading of section 16 for “Surveillance Commissioners” substitute “ Judicial Commissioners ”. Omit section 18 (information to be provided to Surveillance Commissioners). In the cross-heading before section 21 (Chief Surveillance Commissioner) for “Chief Surveillance” substitute “ Investigatory Powers ”. Omit section 21 (functions of Chief Surveillance Commissioner). Section 22 (co-operation with, and reports by, Chief Surveillance Commissioner) is amended as follows. Omit subsection (1). In subsection (2) for “Chief Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”. for “Chief Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”, and after “under” insert “ , and in relation to, ”. In section 24(2) (issue and revision of codes of practice) for “the Surveillance Commissioners appointed under this Act or the Commissioners holding office under section 91 of that Act” substitute “ the Judicial Commissioners ”. In section 26(4) (effect of codes of practice)— in paragraph (b) for “Chief Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”, and in paragraph (c) for “a Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ a Judicial Commissioner (other than the Investigatory Powers Commissioner) ”. Section 31(1) (interpretation) is amended as follows. After the definitions of “directed” and “intrusive” insert— Omit the definitions of “ordinary Surveillance Commissioner”, “Surveillance Commissioner” and “Chief Surveillance Commissioner”. In section 21(3)(b) of the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (duty to consult certain persons before making an order for the continuation, repeal etc. of TPIM powers) for “the Intelligence Services Commissioner” substitute “ the Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”. The Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 is amended as follows. Section 29 (code of practice for surveillance camera systems) is amended as follows.

In subsection (5)(d) (duty to consult certain persons in preparing code) for “the Chief Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ the Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”. In subsection (7) omit the definition of “the Chief Surveillance Commissioner”. In section 33(8)(d) (duty to consult before making an order identifying who must have regard to the code) for “the Chief Surveillance Commissioner” substitute “ the Investigatory Powers Commissioner ”. Omit section 94 of the Telecommunications Act 1984 (directions in the interests of national security etc.). In paragraph 17 of Schedule 2 to the Northern Ireland Act 1998 (excepted matters) after “subversion;” insert “ the Technical Advisory Board provided for by section 245 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016; ”. The Communications Act 2003 is amended as follows. In section 401(5)(g), for “sections 47 to 49” substitute “ section 47 or 48 ”. In Schedule 18 (transitional provisions), omit paragraph 24 (which relates to section 94 of the Telecommunications Act 1984). S. 270(2) in force at Royal Assent, see s. 272(2) S. 271(2)-(4) in force at Royal Assent, see s. 272(2) S. 87(1)(b) in force at 1.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(a) Sch. 8 para. 13 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(i) S. 13 in force at 8.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 14(a) (with reg. 21) Words in s. 70(3)(a) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(3)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 14 in force at 16.1.2019 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 4 Sch. 2 para. 8 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(d) Sch. 8 para. 25 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(iii) S. 16(4)-(6) in force at 31.5.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(b) S. 194 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) Sch. 10 para. 91 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 253(3)-(6) in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(s) (with reg. 3) Sch. 8 para. 24 in force at 26.9.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(g)(ii) Sch. 5 para. 5 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(n) Words in s. 229(9) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 6(4), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(f) Sch. 10 para. 38 in force at 27.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 5(d) Words in s. 80(5) substituted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 4(5) Sch. 8 para. 21(1)(2) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(ii) Words in Sch. 6 Pt. 1 substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 24(2)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(v) Words in s. 70(6)(a) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(6)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 210 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) Sch. 1 para. 3 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 196 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) Words in s. 62(5)(c) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(6)(c) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 231(10) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 10(4)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(j) Sch. 3 para. 2 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 130 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(o) (with reg. 24) S. 61(7)(b) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(4)(b)(5), 6(5)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 237 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(k) Word in s. 86(1) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 21(2)(b)(ii) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 231(9)(a) in force at 5.12.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(g) Words in s. 68(3) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 8(2) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (1.1.2023) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/1395), regs. 1(1), 2(3)(a) S. 243(3) in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(c)(v) Words in s. 20(3)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(5) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) Sch. 10 para. 47 in force at 27.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 5(g) S. 271(1) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(c) S. 267(5)(aa) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(8), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) Words in s. 89(1) substituted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(3)(f), Sch. 1 para. 22(a) S. 261(5A)(5B) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 13(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(m) S. 258 in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(l) S. 240 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(i) (with regs. 6-11) S. 254 in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(h) Sch. 10 para. 2 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(i) Sch. 10 para. 59 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(e)(iii) Words in s. 199(1) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Sch. 3 para. 12 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Words in s. 134(2)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 10 para. 48 in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(o) S. 200(1)(2)(4) in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 199 in force at 25.7.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(i) S. 170 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) S. 72 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 229(8)(d)(i) in force at 5.2.2019 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(e) Words in s. 62(A2) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 15(2), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(o) S. 83 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) Words in s. 77(1)(a) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 17(2) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 77 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 97(2) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 17(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(q) Sch. 3 para. 20(2)(ha)(hb) inserted (20.12.2023) by National Security Act 2023 (c. 32), s. 100(1), Sch. 18 para. 10(3)(a) (with s. 97); S.I. 2023/1272, reg. 2(f) S. 229(8)(g)-(i) in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(d) S. 94(1)-(3)(4)(a)(5)(7) in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(h) S. 2 in force at 22.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(a) Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table entries omitted (22.7.2020) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) (No. 2) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/661), regs. 1, 2(2) Words in s. 40(1)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(7)(a) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) S. 229(8)(j)-(m) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(vi) (with reg. 3(6)) S. 18(1)(a)(g)(2)(3) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(d) S. 43 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(o) S. 243(2)(b) in force at 5.2.2019 for specified purposes by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(j)(ii) S. 270(1) in force at 5.2.2019 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(k) S. 12 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(a) Sch. 10 para. 8 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Sch. 10 para. 6(4) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(ii)(aa) S. 234(2)(d) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(c)(i) S. 102(1)-(3) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(a)(i) Ss. 154, 154A substituted for s.154 (16.4.2024) by The Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (Remedial) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/514), arts. 1(1), 2 S. 106(11A) inserted (1.11.2022 for specified purposes, 19.6.2023 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 4 para. 2(3); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 3; S.I. 2023/621, reg. 2 Sch. 1 para. 8 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 62 cross-heading inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 2 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 10 para. 22 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 91(1) substituted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(3)(f), Sch. 1 para. 22(b) S. 271(1) in force at 26.9.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(h) Sch. 10 para. 69 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 156 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) S. 19(5) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 132(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) S. 104(1) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(f)(i) S. 199(2) substituted (25.5.2018) by Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), s. 212(1), Sch. 19 para. 200 (with ss. 117, 209, 210); S.I. 2018/625, reg. 2(1)(g) Sch. 10 para. 63 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(q) S. 222 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 243(1)(h) in force at 22.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(g)(ii) Words in s. 1(6) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 6(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(f) S. 236 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(h) Sch. 10 Pt. 8 in force at 30.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(h)(ii) (with reg. 2(2)) Sch. 10 para. 78 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) (with reg. 7) S. 243(1)(c) in force at 22.7.2020 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(b) Sch. 10 para. 83 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Words in s. 62(2) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 15(3)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(o) S. 214 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 230 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(f) S. 243(1)(c) in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(c)(i) S. 33 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(e) Sch. 10 para. 79 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 243(1)(i) in force at 22.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(g)(iii) S. 243(1)(g) in force at 30.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(c) (with regs. 2(2), 7) Sch. 3 para. 5 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Words in s. 206(5)(a) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(3)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) Sch. 10 para. 33 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (25.9.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(7) Words in s. 263(1) inserted (1.5.2022 for specified purposes, 5.12.2022 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 5 para. 46; S.I. 2022/471, reg. 2(e); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 4 Sch. 7 para. 1 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(t) Sch. 10 para. 56 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(e)(iii) S. 26 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(j) S. 70(6)(b)(c) substituted for s. 70(6)(b) (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(6)(d) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 2 in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(a) Sch. 3 para. 10 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 108 in force at 28.11.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(c) Sch. 8 para. 3 in force at 26.9.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(g)(i) Sch. 10 para. 23 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Sch. 10 para. 12 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 76(2) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 16(4)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 243(1)(b) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(e)(i) Sch. 10 para. 92 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 94A inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 20(4), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(s) (with regs. 3, 4) S. 64(1)(aa) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 5(2)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 5 para. 6 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(n) Sch. 8 para. 20(3) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(v)(cc) S. 238(1)-(5)(6)(a)(7) in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(l) Sch. 8 para. 17 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(iv) Sch. 1 para. 6 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) Words in s. 219(7) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(4)(b)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 70 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 97 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(l) S. 110 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(e) S. 229(1)(a)-(c) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(i) (with reg. 3(1)(a)) S. 28 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(l) S. 2 in force at 30.12.2016 for specified purposes by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(a) S. 75 omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 15 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 16(1)-(3)(7) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(b) S. 234(1) restricted (12.2.2019 for specified purposes, 13.8.2020 in so far as not already in force) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(1)(g), Sch. 3 para. 62(7) (with s. 25(9)); S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(g) S. 9 in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(e) Words in s. 78(5) substituted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 3(5) Sch. 10 para. 10 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 87(4) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 16(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(p) S. 121(4) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 25, 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(w) Sch. 1 para. 12 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) Words in s. 133(3)(b) substituted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 8.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), s. 183(1)(5)(e), Sch. 9 para. 74(5)(b); S.I. 2017/1249, reg. 2 (with reg. 3) S. 80(1)(b) substituted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 4(2) S. 42 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(n) Sch. 2 para. 9 omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), s. 32(2), Sch. para. 6; S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(bb) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (1.5.2022 for specified purposes, 5.12.2022 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 5 para. 47; S.I. 2022/471, reg. 2(e); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 4 Sch. 10 para. 61 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(p)(iv) S. 249 in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(e) Sch. 8 para. 13 in force at 6.7.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/817, reg. 2 S. 256 in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(j) S. 227(9A) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 8(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(h) S. 168 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) S. 235(6) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(d) Words in s. 63(1) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 4(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 248 in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(d) Sch. 10 para. 29 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 164 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) Ss. 195, 195A substituted for s. 195 (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 27(2), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(y) Words in s. 57(3)(c) inserted (1.5.2022 for specified purposes, 5.12.2022 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 5 para. 45; S.I. 2022/471, reg. 2(e); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 4 Sch. 10 para. 11 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (25.9.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(10) S. 243(2)(c) in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(j)(iii) Words in s. 200(1) renumbered as s. 200(1)(a) (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(4)(a)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Sch. 10 para. 28 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Sch. 3 para. 9 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 229(9) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(a)(i) S. 249 in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(a) S. 184 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) S. 74 omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 14 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Words in s. 253(1)(a) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 19(3)(a)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(r) Pt. 7A inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 2, 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(b) Words in s. 70(7) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(7)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 51 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(p) S. 226 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(v) S. 61(1)-(6)(8)(9) in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c) S. 2(6) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 1 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 248 in force at 5.12.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(i) S. 122 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(l) Sch. 1 para. 14 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 158 in force at 25.7.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(b) (with reg. 6(a)) Sch. 8 para. 29 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(iv) Sch. 10 Pt. 8 in force at 27.12.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 5(i) S. 15 modified (temp.) (20.8.2018) by The Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (Commencement No. 8 and Transitional and Saving Provisions) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/940), reg. 6(2) Sch. 10 para. 45 in force at 7.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 4(a) S. 243(6) in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(c)(viii) Sch. 8 para. 7 in force at 30.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(f) (with reg. 2(2)) Sch. 8 para. 9 in force at 6.7.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/817, reg. 2 Words in s. 62(4)(b) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(5)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 271(1) in force at 5.2.2019 for specified purposes by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(l) S. 86(2A) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 21(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 47 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(p) Sch. 10 para. 5 in force at 27.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 5(a) S. 21(4)-(6) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(g)(ii) S. 18(1)(b)-(f)(h) in force at 30.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(a) (with reg. 2(2)) S. 94(9)(13)-(16) in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(j) Words in s. 12(6) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(7)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) Words in s. 70(4) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(4) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 73 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 243(5)(b)(c) in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(c)(vii) S. 206 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(o) Words in s. 225(3) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(6)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) Words in Sch. 3 para. 12 substituted (31.12.2020) by Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c. 13), s. 64(2), Sch. 3 para. 10 (with ss. 52(3), 53, 58); S.I. 2020/1535, reg. 3(f) S. 243(5)(a)(f) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(e)(vii) S. 15(6) in force at 31.5.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(a) Word in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (1.1.2023) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/1395), regs. 1(1), 2(2)(b) S. 19 modified (temp.) (20.8.2018) by The Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (Commencement No. 8 and Transitional and Saving Provisions) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/940), reg. 6(1)(a) S. 171 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(f) S. 193 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) (with reg. 23) S. 243(1)(f) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(e)(iii) Words in s. 200(2) renumbered as s. 200(2)(a) (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(4)(b)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 76(1) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 16(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 178 in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) S. 34 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(f) Words in s. 196(2)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Words in s. 11(4)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 S. 229(8)(e)(ii) in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(b)(bb)(iii) S. 4 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 2(b) Words in s. 63 heading inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 4(2) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 229(9) in force at 13.2.2017 for specified purposes by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(e) S. 55 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(r) (with reg. 15(4)(a)) S. 172 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(g) (with reg. 7) S. 128(2)-(4) in force at 5.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(f) Words in s. 220(3) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(5)(a)(iii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) Sch. 10 para. 98 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 62(1) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 229(8)(e)(i) in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(b)(aa)(iii) S. 78(3)(4) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 18(4) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 169 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) S. 229(8)(a) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(vi) (with reg. 3(6)) Sch. 8 para. 19 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(iv) Words in s. 71(2)(d) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 11(2)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 204 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 103(1)(2) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(b) S. 248 in force at 28.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(g) Words in s. 72(1)(b) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 12(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 229(2)(a)-(c) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(ii) (with reg. 3(1)(b)) Words in s. 26(2) renumbered as s. 26(2)(a) (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 22(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(t) S. 243(1)(c) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(e)(ii) S. 225 in force at 25.7.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(u) Sch. 10 para. 32 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 67(1)(a) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 7 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 84(2)(da) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 20(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 219(9) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(4)(c), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 191 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(q) Sch. 1 para. 5 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 138 in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) Words in s. 15(4)(b) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(3)(b) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) Sch. 1 para. 7 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 126 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(n) Words in s. 59(2)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 8 para. 23(2) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(viii)(bb) Sch. 10 para. 16 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Sch. 8 para. 21(1) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(aa)(vi) S. 220(6) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(7)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 15(4)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(3)(a) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) Sch. 10 para. 100 in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(q) Word in s. 63(3)(b) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 4(4)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Words in s. 62(2) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 15(3)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(o) Words in s. 134(2)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 S. 80(2) substituted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 4(3) S. 71(2A) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 11(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 10(2A) inserted (31.7.2017) by The Criminal Justice (European Investigation Order) Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/730), reg. 1(1), Sch. 3 para. 9(1)(b) (with reg. 3) S. 271(1) in force at 8.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 14(b) Sch. 8 para. 5 in force at 30.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(f) (with reg. 2(2)) S. 84 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 2(1)(ja)(jb) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 6(3)(c), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(f) Sch. 1 para. 19 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 69 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) Sch. 3 para. 6 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Words in s. 229(8)(e)(i) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 20(5), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(s) (with regs. 3, 4) S. 271(1) in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(m) Sch. 9 para. 3 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(p) Words in s. 220(5) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(5)(a)(iv), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 203 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(l) S. 235(5) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(g) Words in s. 173(2)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 S. 271(1) in force at 7.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 4(b) S. 271(1) in force at 22.7.2020 for specified purposes by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(c) S. 90(1)-(12) in force at 1.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(a) S. 229(3E) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 10(2)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(j) S. 119 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(i) S. 94(8) in force at 30.12.2016 for specified purposes by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(i) S. 231(9)(b) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(b)(bb)(ii) S. 104(2)(3) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(f)(ii) Sch. 10 para. 57 omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 28 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 229(2)(d) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(a)(i) S. 231(9)(a) in force at 1.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(c) S. 52(6)(7) inserted (9.10.2019) by Crime (Overseas Production Orders) Act 2019 (c. 5), ss. 16(3), 20(1); S.I. 2019/1318, reg. 2(1)(c) S. 229(8)(d)(i) in force at 1.9.2017 for specified purposes by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(vi) Sch. 10 para. 21 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 206(4)(b) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(3)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 228A inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 9, 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(i) S. 61(7)(d)-(j) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(4)(b)(5), 6(5)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 64(1)(a) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 5(2)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 177 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(l) Sch. 8 para. 16(1) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(i) Words in s. 65(1) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 6(2) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 211 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(r) Words in s. 111(3) renumbered as s. 111(3)(a) (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 23(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(u) Sch. 1 para. 1 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 111(7A)-(7E) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 23(4), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(u) Words in s. 206(5)(b) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(3)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 204 in force at 25.7.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(m) (with reg. 6(b)) Sch. 3 para. 11 repealed (31.12.2020) by Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c. 13), s. 64(2), Sch. 3 para. 9 (with ss. 52(3), 53, 58); S.I. 2020/1535, reg. 3(e) S. 206(7) substituted (25.5.2018) by Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), s. 212(1), Sch. 19 para. 202 (with ss. 117, 209, 210); S.I. 2018/625, reg. 2(1)(g) Sch. 10 para. 65 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 12(2A) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) Sch. 10 para. 94 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Sch. 8 para. 23(1) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(viii)(aa) S. 271(1) in force at 5.12.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(j) S. 67 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 243(2)(a) in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(c)(iv) Words in s. 76(4)(b)(i) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 16(5) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 174 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) Sch. 2 para. 5 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(d) S. 111(3)(b) and word inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 23(2)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(u) S. 87(4A) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 16(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(p) S. 235(1)-(4)(7) in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(j) S. 243(1)(h) in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(c)(ii) Words in s. 196(2)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 7 para. 2 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(t) S. 11 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(b) Sch. 10 para. 46 in force at 30.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(h)(i) (with reg. 2(2)) S. 107 in force at 28.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(b) Sch. 10 para. 55 in force at 5.2.2019 for specified purposes by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(p)(iii) Sch. 4 Pt. 2 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(m) S. 207 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(p) S. 8 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(d) Sch. 9 para. 6(1)(a) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 27(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 190 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) Sch. 8 para. 1 in force at 6.7.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/817, reg. 2 Sch. 3 para. 8 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 200(3) in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(j) (with reg. 8) S. 166 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) Sch. 8 para. 8 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(i) Sch. 1 para. 2 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 38 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(j) Sch. 5 para. 3 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(n) S. 213 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (25.9.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(3) Sch. 8 para. 8 in force at 6.7.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/817, reg. 2 S. 106(1)(3)(4) in force at 5.12.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(a) S. 62 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 243(1)(d)(e) in force at 5.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(h) S. 52 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(q) S. 10(1)(2) in force at 26.9.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(b) Sch. 10 para. 14 and cross-heading omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 11(6), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(k) S. 94(8)(11) in force at 1.11.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(a) S. 61(7)(a)-(j) in force at 30.12.2016 for specified purposes by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(b) S. 231 in force at 5.2.2019 for specified purposes by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(f) Word in s. 96(2)(e) omitted (1.11.2018) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(3)(f), Sch. 1 para. 23(a) S. 252 in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(f) S. 1 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 59(2)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 S. 229(8)(fa) inserted (16.4.2024) by The Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (Remedial) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/514), arts. 1(1), 3(2) S. 179 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(n) S. 248 in force at 30.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(d) (with reg. 2(2)) S. 140 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(e) Sch. 7 para. 4 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(t) S. 223 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) Sch. 8 para. 4 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(i) S. 111(1)-(3)(8) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(i) Sch. 10 para. 62 in force at 1.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(e) Sch. 10 para. 52 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Sch. 8 para. 18 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(iv) Words in s. 231(9)(b) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 10(4)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(j) Sch. 10 para. 50 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Sch. 6 Pt. 3 in force at 28.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(h) Words in s. 111(6) renumbered as s. 111(6)(a) (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 23(3)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(u) S. 10(3) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(f)(i) Words in s. 253(2)(a) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 19(3)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(r) S. 62(5)(a) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(6)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 229(4) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(iv) (with reg. 3(2)-(5)) S. 30 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(n) S. 78 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) Sch. 10 para. 41 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 58(4)(c) substituted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 8.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), s. 183(1)(5)(e), Sch. 9 para. 74(2)(a); S.I. 2017/1249, reg. 2 (with reg. 3) S. 107(2)(h) substituted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 8.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), s. 183(1)(5)(e), Sch. 9 para. 74(4); S.I. 2017/1249, reg. 2 (with reg. 3) S. 235A inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 11(1), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(k) S. 246 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(o) Words in s. 106(11) omitted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 8.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), s. 183(1)(5)(e), Sch. 9 para. 74(3)(b); S.I. 2017/1249, reg. 2 (with reg. 3) Words in s. 52(3) inserted (9.10.2019) by Crime (Overseas Production Orders) Act 2019 (c. 5), ss. 16(2), 20(1); S.I. 2019/1318, reg. 2(1)(c) S. 229(9) in force at 1.9.2017 for specified purposes by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(vii) Sch. 10 para. 30 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 199 in force at 1.9.2017 for specified purposes by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(c) S. 229(3)(c) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 10(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(j) Sch. 6 Pt. 2 in force at 28.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(h) S. 102(1)-(3) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(d)(i) (with reg. 22(a)) Sch. 10 para. 97 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 229(8)(f) in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(b)(cc)(iii) S. 231(9)(a) in force at 26.9.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(e) Word in s. 200 cross-heading substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) S. 234(10)(11) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(f) S. 15(6) in force at 1.9.2017 for specified purposes by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(a) S. 248 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(a) S. 87(1)(a)(2)-(11) in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(c) Sch. 10 para. 37 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 73(4)-(7) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 13(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (1.1.2023) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/1395), regs. 1(1), 2(3)(b) Sch. 10 para. 24 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Sch. 10 para. 36 in force at 27.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 5(c) Words in s. 58(4)(c) substituted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 8.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), s. 183(1)(5)(e), Sch. 9 para. 74(2)(b); S.I. 2017/1249, reg. 2 (with reg. 3) S. 95 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(k) Sch. 8 para. 14 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(i) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (25.9.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(8) Sch. 10 para. 51 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 25 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(c) S. 229(8A) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 25 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 104(1) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(c) Sch. 2A inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(9), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (1.11.2022 for specified purposes, 19.6.2023 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 4 para. 2(6); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 3; S.I. 2023/621, reg. 2 S. 243(2)(a) in force at 22.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(h) Words in s. 220(1)(b) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(5)(a)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 98 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(m) S. 60A and cross-heading inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(4)(b)(5), 5 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 128(1)(5)-(7) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(p) Sch. 10 para. 93 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Words in s. 43(7)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 8 para. 14 in force at 6.7.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/817, reg. 2 Sch. 10 para. 45 in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 13 (with regs. 15(4), 16, 19(1)) Words in s. 106(11) substituted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 8.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), s. 183(1)(5)(e), Sch. 9 para. 74(3)(a); S.I. 2017/1249, reg. 2 (with reg. 3) Sch. 1 para. 18 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 205 in force at 25.7.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(n) (with reg. 6(c)) Sch. 10 para. 25 repealed (31.12.2020) by Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c. 13), s. 64(2), Sch. 3 para. 9 (with ss. 52(3), 53, 58); S.I. 2020/1535, reg. 3(e) S. 63(3)(d) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 4(4)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 10 para. 89 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 234(2)(a)-(c) (f) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(f) Words in s. 261(5) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 13(2), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(m) S. 65 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) Sch. 10 Pt. 8 in force at 30.12.2016 for specified purposes by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(r) S. 61(7A) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(4)(b)(5), 6(6) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 243(1)(i) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(e)(v) S. 271(1) in force at 30.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(e) (with reg. 2(2)) S. 229(6)(7) in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(d) Words in s. 199(2) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(2)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Sch. 1 para. 4 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 87(4)(aa) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 16(2)(c), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(p) S. 49 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(p) S. 157 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(j) S. 15(1)-(5)(7) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(a) (with reg. 16(2)) Sch. 10 para. 34 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Sch.

8 para. 31 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(iv) S. 149 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) Sch. 8 para. 10 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(i) S. 123 in force at 5.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(c) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (22.7.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) (No. 2) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/661), regs. 1, 2(3) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (25.9.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(2) S. 229(8)(b)(c) in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(e) Words in s. 70(6) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(6)(a)(ii) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 2 in force at 5.2.2019 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 202(1) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 137 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(b) S. 215 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 66 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 132 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(r) S. 68 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 56 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(s) (with reg. 17) S. 192 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(r) Sch. 10 para. 99 in force at 22.8.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(k) (with regs. 5, 7) Sch. 10 para. 85 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Sch. 10 para. 19 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 200 heading omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(4)(c), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 88(1)(a) inserted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(3)(c), 9(a) Words in s. 62(3) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(4)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 243(5)(d)(e) in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(i) S. 176 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(k) S. 243(1)(i) in force at 1.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(d) S. 103(1)(2) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(e)(i) (with reg. 22(b)) S. 57 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(t) (with reg. 18) S. 139 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(d) S. 23 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(i) S. 108 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(h) S. 232 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(g) S. 115 in force at 28.11.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(e) S. 233(1) in force at 13.2.2017 for specified purposes by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(h) Sch. 10 para. 26 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 10(3) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 2(e) Sch. 10 para. 49 in force at 27.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 5(h) Word in s. 87(11) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 16(4)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(p) S. 217 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) Sch. 10 para. 99 in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(p) (with reg. 4) Sch. 8 para. 6 in force at 30.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(f) (with reg. 2(2)) Sch. 3 para. 13 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 249 in force at 30.12.2016 for specified purposes by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(o) S. 81 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) Words in s. 71(3) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 11(4) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 259 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(b) (with reg. 20) S. 40(4)-(7) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(l) Sch. 8 para. 2 in force at 6.7.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/817, reg. 2 Sch. 3 para. 14 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Words in s. 65(7)(b) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 6(7)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Words in s. 95(5) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 17(2), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(q) Words in s. 220(2) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(5)(a)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 253(3) modified (8.3.2018) by The Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (Commencement No. 4 and Transitional and Saving Provisions) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/341), reg. 6(1)(a)(2) (as amended (29.5.2018) by The Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (Commencement No. 5 and Transitional and Saving Provisions) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/652), reg. 27) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (25.9.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(6) S. 229(3)(a) (c)-(j) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(iii) S. 64(1A) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 5(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 100 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(b) Sch. 10 para. 86 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 153 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) (with reg. 15(4)(b)) S. 125 in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(m) Words in s. 202(2) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 255(5A)(5B) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 20(6), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(s) (with regs. 3, 4) Sch. 10 para. 20 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 2 in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(a) S. 229(1)(d) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(a)(i) S. 54 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(r) S. 78(1)(b) substituted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 3(2)(b) Sch. 9 para. 8 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(p) S. 113 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(k) S. 58(4)(e) inserted (1.5.2024) by Northern Ireland Troubles (Legacy and Reconciliation) Act 2023 (c. 41), s. 63(4), Sch. 13 para. 9 (with s. 61) S. 270(1) in force at 30.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(g) (with reg. 2(2)) Sch. 8 para. 21(2) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(bb)(vi) S. 173 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) (with reg. 7) S. 229(1) in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(b)(i) S. 62(5A)-(5C) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 15(4), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(o) S. 5 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 2(c) S. 61(9)(c) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(4)(b)(5), 6(7) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 155 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) Words in s. 12(6) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(7)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) Sch. 9 para. 5 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(p) S. 227(6A)(6B) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 7(2), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(g) Words in s. 70(6) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(6)(a)(i) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 70(5A) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(5) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 114 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(l) Word in s. 70(6) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(6)(c) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 145 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) Words in s. 238(6)(a) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 8(7), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(h) Sch. 3 para. 8A and cross-heading inserted (20.12.2023) by National Security Act 2023 (c. 32), s. 100(1), Sch. 18 para. 10(2) (with s. 97); S.I. 2023/1272, reg. 2(f) Words in s. 225(4) renumbered as s. 225(4)(a) (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(8)(a)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Sch. 8 para. 16(1) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(aa)(iii) Sch. 10 para. 71 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Words in s. 56(3)(d) inserted (1.5.2022 for specified purposes, 5.12.2022 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 5 para. 44; S.I. 2022/471, reg. 2(e); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 4 S. 31 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(o) Words in s. 94 cross-heading substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 20(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(s) (with regs. 3, 4) Sch. 10 Pt. 8 in force at 22.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(l) (with reg. 5) S. 227(8)-(8D) substituted for s. 227(8)(9) (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 8(2), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(h) S. 9 in force at 26.9.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(a) Words in s. 213(2)(b) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 3(1), 32(2) (with s. 3(2)); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(c) S. 87(10A)(10B) inserted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(3)(c), 8(5) S. 231(9)(a) in force at 22.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(e) Sch. 8 para. 20(1)(2) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(ii) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (25.9.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(5) Words in s. 107(3) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 24(4)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(v) Words in s. 225(13) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(6)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 106(3)(4) in force at 28.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(a)(iii) Sch. 10 para. 44 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 53 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(q) S. 60(1) in force at 13.2.2017 for specified purposes by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(e) Sch. 1 para. 10 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 111(8)(e) repealed (31.1.2020) by The European Parliamentary Elections Etc. (Repeal, Revocation, Amendment and Saving Provisions) (United Kingdom and Gibraltar) (EU Exit) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1310), reg. 1, Sch. 1 Pt. 1; 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) S. 86 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 11(3A)(3B) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 12(3), 32(2) (with s. 12(5)); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(l) Sch. 3 para. 1 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Sch. 8 para. 27 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(iv) Sch. 8 para. 27(4) inserted (26.7.2018) by The Investigatory Powers (Codes of Practice and Miscellaneous Amendments) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/905), arts. 1(3), 6 Sch. 10 para. 82 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 188 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) S. 162 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) Words in s. 173(2)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 S. 111(6)(b) and word inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 23(3)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(u) S. 80(3)(4) inserted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 4(4) S. 220 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) (with reg. 9) Sch. 10 para. 13 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 101 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(c) Word in s. 87(11) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 16(4)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(p) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (25.9.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(9)(a) Sch. 10 para. 101(3) in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(p)(v) S. 93 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(g) Sch. 10 para. 40 in force at 27.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 5(e) Sch. 10 para. 27 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 21(1)-(3) in force at 30.8.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(b) (with regs. 2(2), 6(b)) Sch. 8 para. 21(3) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(cc)(vi) Sch. 10 para. 84 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Sch. 3 para. 24 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Words in s. 219(8) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(4)(b)(iii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 245 in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(d) Words in s. 65(2) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 6(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Words in s. 10(1) inserted (31.7.2017) by The Criminal Justice (European Investigation Order) Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/730), reg. 1(1), Sch. 3 para. 9(1)(a) (with reg. 3) Sch. 3 para. 16 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 10(1)(2) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(f)(i) Words in s. 6 heading inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 12(4), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(l) S. 229(3A) inserted (18.9.2020) by The Functions of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner (Oversight of the Data Access Agreement between the United Kingdom and the United States of America and of functions exercisable under the Crime (Overseas Production Orders) Act 2019) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1009), regs. 1, 2(a) Word in s. 230(1) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 10(3)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(j) Sch. 10 para. 58 omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 28 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 185 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) S. 147 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) S. 225 in force at 22.8.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) (with reg. 9) S. 244 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(n) Words in s. 70(3)(b) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(3)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 221 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(t) (with reg. 6(d)) S. 253(1)(2)(7)-(9) in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(g) Words in s. 201(3) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(5)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) S. 17 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(c) Words in s. 47(2) inserted (13.8.2020) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(2)(d), Sch. 4 para. 33; S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(i) S. 1(5)(b)(ii) substituted (25.5.2018) by Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), s. 212(1), Sch. 19 para. 199 (with ss. 117, 209, 210); S.I. 2018/625, reg. 2(1)(g) S. 225(13)(b) and word inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(8)(b)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Sch. 3 para. 4 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 229(8)(e)(f) in force at 1.11.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(b) Words in s. 2(1)(k) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 6(3)(d), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(f) S. 152 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) (with reg. 16(5)) Words in s. 202(3) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(2)(b)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) Sch. 10 para. 67 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Sch. 2 para. 11 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(d) Words in s. 76(2) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 16(4)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 26(2A)-(2F) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 22(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(t) S. 224 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 141 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(f) Sch. 10 para. 42 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Sch. 5 para. 4 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(n) Words in s. 73(1) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 13(2) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 102(9) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 132(3); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) S. 229(3)(b) in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(b)(ii) S. 87(6A)(6B) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 20(2), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(s) (with regs. 3, 4) S. 227(14) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 8(6), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(h) Sch. 10 para. 70 in force at 5.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(l)(iii) S. 76(A1) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 16(2) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 10 para. 66 in force at 5.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(l)(i) S. 62(6) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(7) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 78(3)(4) inserted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 3(4) Words in s. 61 cross-heading inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(4)(b)(5), 6(1) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 1 para. 17 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 238(6)(b)(c) in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(w) S. 229(8)(d)(ii) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(vi) (with reg. 3(6)) Sch. 8 para. 22(2)(3) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(vii)(bb) Sch. 10 para. 95 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Sch. 9 para. 1 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(f)(i) S. 150 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(h) (with reg. 15(3)(a)) S. 229(5) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(d)(v) S. 218 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 200(1)(b) and word inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(4)(a)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) S. 92 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(f) Words in s. 155(2)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Word in Sch. 3 para. 20(2)(i) substituted (20.12.2023) by National Security Act 2023 (c. 32), s. 100(1), Sch. 18 para. 10(3)(b) (with s. 97); S.I. 2023/1272, reg. 2(f) Sch. 10 para. 4 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(i) S. 202(5) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(2)(c), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 231(9)(a) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(b)(aa)(ii) S. 77(1A) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 17(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 131 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(q) (with reg. 24) Words in s. 94(5) substituted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(3)(f), Sch. 1 para. 22(c) Sch. 10 para. 1 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(i) S. 40(1)-(3)(8) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(p) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (1.1.2023) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/1395), regs. 1(1), 2(2)(a) Words in Sch. 6 Pt. 1 inserted (1.5.2022 for specified purposes, 5.12.2022 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 5 para. 48; S.I. 2022/471, reg. 2(e); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 4 S. 19(1)-(3) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(a) S. 133 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(s) Words in s. 107(3) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 24(4)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(v) Sch. 10 para. 6(4) in force at 22.7.2020 for specified purposes by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(e)(i) S. 19(4)(5) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(e)(ii) S. 90(13) in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(e) S. 208 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(q) S. 80(3)(4) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 19(4) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 10 para. 68 in force at 5.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(l)(ii) Words in s. 68(5) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 8(4) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 6 Pt. 1 in force at 28.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(h) S. 229(8) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(a)(ii) Sch. 1 para. 16 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) Sch. 8 para. 23(1) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(ii) S. 135 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(p) S. 7 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(c) (with reg. 19(3)(b)) Sch. 3 para. 23 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 12(3) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(5), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) S. 216 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 41 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(m) S. 229(4A)-(4C) inserted (10.8.2021 for specified purposes, 15.9.2021 for specified purposes, 30.9.2021 in so far as not already in force) by Covert Human Intelligence Sources (Criminal Conduct) Act 2021 (c. 4), ss. 7(2), 9(2); S.I. 2021/605, reg. 2(a)(b)(c) S. 189 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) Words in s. 94(4)(a) substituted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(3)(f), Sch. 1 para. 22(c) S. 29 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(m) S. 243(1)(c) in force at 5.2.2019 for specified purposes by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(g) S. 109 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(d) Sch. 3 paras. 25, 26 inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 28(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(z) S. 234(2)(e) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(c)(ii) S. 242 in force at 31.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/1379, reg. 2 (with reg. 3) S. 181 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) Sch. 8 para. 10 in force at 6.7.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/817, reg. 2 Words in s. 68(4) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 8(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 8 para. 1 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(i) S. 120 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(j) S. 271(1) in force at 22.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(j) S. 129 in force at 28.11.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(f) S. 121 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(k) Sch. 8 para. 32 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(iv) S. 73(3A) substituted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 2 Words in s. 62(4)(a) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(5)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Word in s. 84(2)(d) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 20(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 60(1) in force at 31.5.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(s) Sch. 10 para. 74 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 180 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) Sch. 10 para. 18 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 11(1) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 12(2), 32(2) (with s. 12(5)); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(l) S. 134 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(t) Sch. 3 para. 9A and cross-heading inserted (22.11.2018) by Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c. 13), s. 64(2), Sch. 3 para. 7 (with ss. 52(3), 53, 58); S.I. 2018/1213, reg. 2(f) Sch. 10 Pt. 8 in force at 7.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 4(b) S. 197 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) Words in s. 12(2)(b) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(2), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) S. 256A inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 20(7), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(s) (with regs. 3, 4) Sch. 3 para. 19 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 178 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(m) Words in s. 263(1) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 7(4), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(g) Words in s. 43(7)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 1 para. 9 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 60(2)(3) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(s) S. 87(1)(a)(i)-(vi) substituted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(3)(c), 8(2) Words in s. 1(6)(e) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 6(2)(b)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(f) S. 125 in force at 5.12.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(e) S. 237(3) inserted (25.5.2018) by Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), s. 212(1), Sch. 19 para. 203(3) (with ss. 117, 209, 210); S.I. 2018/625, reg. 2(1)(g) S. 243(1)(j) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(e)(vi) S. 257 in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(k) S. 243(1)(i) in force at 5.2.2019 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(i) Sch. 10 para. 9 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 32 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(d) S. 65(3B) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 6(5) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 129 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(n) (with reg. 24) Words in s. 65(7)(a) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 6(7)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 4 Pt. 1 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(m) Words in s. 265 table inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 7(5), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(g) Words in s. 78(1)(a) inserted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 3(2)(a) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (25.9.2020) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(4) Words in s. 10(3) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(2)(b) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) Words in Sch. 6 Pt. 2 inserted (1.11.2022 for specified purposes, 19.6.2023 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 4 para. 2(7); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 3; S.I. 2023/621, reg. 2 S. 20 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(f) S. 243(2)(a) in force at 5.2.2019 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(j)(i) S. 35(1)-(5)(6)(a)(e)(7) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(g) S. 142 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(g) Sch. 9 para. 6(1)(aa) inserted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(3)(f), Sch. 1 para. 27(c) Sch. 8 para. 20(2) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(v)(bb) S. 227(13)(b) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 8(5), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(h) S. 234(1)(2)(g)-(i)(3)-(9) in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(i) Sch. 7 para. 5 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(t) S. 19(1)-(3) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(e)(i) (with regs. 15(1)(a), 19(2)) S. 251 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(r) S. 243(1)(h) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(e)(iv) Words in s. 18(1)(h) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(4) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) S. 2 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 2(a) Sch. 2 para. 6 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(d) S. 94(11) in force at 30.12.2016 for specified purposes by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(j) Sch. 5 para. 1 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(n) Sch. 9 para. 9 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(p) S. 206(8) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(3)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) Sch. 8 para. 15 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(ii) S. 45 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(p) Words in s. 202(3) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(2)(b)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) Sch. 8 para. 16(2) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(bb)(iii) S. 50 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(p) Sch. 8 para. 30 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(iv) Sch. 1 para. 13 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) Word in s. 2(1) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 6(3)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(f) S. 167 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) S. 37 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(i) Words in s. 60(1) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(8) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) S. 241 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(n) Sch. 10 para. 6(3)(6)(7) in force at 27.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 5(b) S. 205 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) Sch. 10 para. 3 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(i) S. 243(1)(h) in force at 5.2.2019 for specified purposes by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(h) S. 271(1) in force at 30.12.2016 for specified purposes by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(q)(r) S. 161 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(e) S. 243(1)(c) in force at 22.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(g)(i) S. 209 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 3 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(b) S. 182 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(o) S. 225(4)(b) and word inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(8)(a)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Sch. 10 para. 76 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Sch. 8 para. 4 in force at 6.7.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/817, reg. 2 S. 102(5)-(9) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(d)(iii) Sch. 10 para. 39 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 86(1) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 21(2)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 201 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) (with reg. 9) S. 159 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(c) S. 26(2)(b) and word inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 22(2)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(t) Sch. 8 para. 5 in force at 26.9.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(g)(i) S. 183 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(p) S. 58(4)(ca) inserted (1.11.2022 for specified purposes, 19.6.2023 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 4 para. 2(2); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 3; S.I. 2023/621, reg. 2 Sch. 8 para. 33 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(ix) Words in s. 237(2) substituted (25.5.2018) by Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), s. 212(1), Sch. 19 para. 203(2) (with ss. 117, 209, 210); S.I. 2018/625, reg. 2(1)(g) Words in Sch. 6 Pt. 1 substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 24(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(v) S. 117 in force at 5.12.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(b) S. 202 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(k) S. 231(9)(a) restricted (12.2.2019 for specified purposes, 13.8.2020 in so far as not already in force) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(1)(g), Sch. 3 para. 62(6) (with s. 25(9)); S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(g) Sch. 10 para. 77 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Words in s. 78(1)(a) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 18(2)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Words in s. 70(7) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(7)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 22 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(h) Sch. 10 para. 101(1)(2) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 175 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(h) Sch. 3 para. 7 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Sch. 10 para. 53 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(p)(ii) Words in Sch. 6 Pt. 1 inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 24(3)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(v) Words in Sch. 6 Pt. 1 inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 24(3)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(v) Words in s. 12(6) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(7)(c), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) Sch. 8 para. 3 in force at 30.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(f) (with reg. 2(2)) S. 144 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) Words in s. 86(1) inserted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 5 Words in s. 1(6)(e) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 6(2)(b)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(f) Words in s. 82(3)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 S. 243(1)(i) in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(c)(iii) Sch. 10 para. 6(5) in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(ii)(bb) S. 73(2) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 13(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 187 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) Sch. 10 para. 54 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(e)(ii) S. 62(A1)(A2) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(2) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 1 para. 15 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 106(2) in force at 28.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(a)(ii) S. 146 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) S. 12(2B)-(2D) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(4), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) S. 117 in force at 27.6.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(g) S. 234(2)(d)(e) in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(f) S. 78(2) substituted (17.5.2019) by The Communications Data Acquisition Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/939), regs. 1(2), 3(3) S. 24 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(b) S. 21(1)-(3) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(g)(i) (with reg. 15(1)(b)) S. 233(1) in force at 1.9.2017 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(e) S. 79 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) Word in s. 261(10) omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 19(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(r) Words in s. 61(3)(c) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(4)(b)(5), 6(4) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 8 para. 26 in force at 26.9.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(g)(ii) S. 229(3B)-(3D) inserted (8.12.2022) by The Investigatory Powers Commissioner (Oversight Functions) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/1299), regs. 1(1), 2 S. 39 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(k) Sch. 3 para. 18 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 112 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(j) (with reg. 25) Sch. 8 para. 2 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(i) Words in s. 229(4)(d) inserted (18.9.2020) by The Functions of the Investigatory Powers Commissioner (Oversight of the Data Access Agreement between the United Kingdom and the United States of America and of functions exercisable under the Crime (Overseas Production Orders) Act 2019) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1009), regs. 1, 2(b) Words in s. 219(2) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(4)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) Sch. 10 para. 43 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 255 in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(i) (with reg. 6(1)(b)) S. 48 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(p) Sch. 9 para. 10 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(f)(ii) Sch. 10 para. 90 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) (with reg. 6) S. 88(1)(aa)(ab) inserted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(3)(c), 9(b) Sch. 8 para. 12 in force at 28.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(i) Sch. 8 para. 7 in force at 26.9.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(g)(i) S. 16(4)-(6) in force at 1.9.2017 for specified purposes by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(b) S. 46 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(p) S. 58(3) in force at 26.9.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(d) Sch. 10 para. 45 in force at 27.12.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 5(f) Sch. 3 para. 15 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 62(5)(b) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(6)(b) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 8 para. 22(1) in force at 27.6.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(ii) Words in s. 65(4) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 6(6) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 27 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 3(k) Sch. 10 para. 6(1)(2) in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(p)(i) S. 91 in force at 1.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(a) Sch. 1 para. 11 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 7(g) S. 99 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(a) S. 35(6)(b)-(d) in force at 26.9.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(c) S. 96 in force at 1.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(a) S. 82 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 12(5A)(5B) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 14(6), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(n) Words in Sch. 6 Pt. 2 substituted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 8.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), s. 183(1)(5)(e), Sch. 9 para. 74(7); S.I. 2017/1249, reg. 2 (with reg. 3) S. 243(1)(a) in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(b) S. 271(1) in force at 1.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(e) Sch. 2 para. 7 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(d) S. 165 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) S. 106(5)-(14) in force at 28.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(a)(iv) Sch. 3 para. 17 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 143 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) S. 105 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(g) Words in s. 174(3)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 8 para. 9 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(i) S. 61A inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(4)(b)(5), 7 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Words in s. 69(1)(b) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 9 (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 26 (see S.I. 2019/174, art. 2(c)) Words in s. 87(4)(a) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 16(2)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(p) S. 212 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(s) Words in s. 72(1)(a) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 12(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 248 in force at 26.9.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(f) Sch. 10 para. 81 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 88 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(d) Sch. 10 para. 15 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 186 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(b) S. 138 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(c) (with reg. 15(1)(c)) Sch. 8 para. 12 in force at 5.12.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(k) Sch. 10 para. 87 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Words in s. 155(2)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 9 para. 2 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(o) S. 219 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(c) S. 229(6)(7) applied (12.2.2019 for specified purposes, 13.8.2020 in so far as not already in force) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(1)(g), Sch. 3 para. 62(5) (with s. 25(9)); S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(g) Words in s. 71(2)(c) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 11(2)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 96(2)(ea)(eb) inserted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(3)(f), Sch. 1 para. 23(b) S. 243(4) in force at 12.3.2018 by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(c)(vi) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (25.9.2020) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1037), regs. 1, 2(9)(b) S. 118 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(h) Sch. 10 para. 60 in force at 22.7.2020 by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(e)(iii) S. 127 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(o) S. 64 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 71 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 103(3)(4) in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(e)(ii) S. 124 in force at 5.12.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(d) S. 116 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 9(f) S. 2 in force at 25.7.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(a) Sch. 9 para. 7 in force at 30.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(g) (with reg. 2(2)) Sch. 3 para. 22 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Sch. 8 para. 22(1) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(vii)(aa) Sch. 7 para. 3 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(t) S. 80 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 234(2)(ba) inserted (10.8.2021 for specified purposes, 15.9.2021 for specified purposes, 30.9.2021 in so far as not already in force) by Covert Human Intelligence Sources (Criminal Conduct) Act 2021 (c. 4), ss. 7(3), 9(2); S.I. 2021/605, reg. 2(a)(b)(c) Words in s. 201(3) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(5)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 40(5)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(7)(b) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) Words in s.

224(4)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 10 para. 7 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 21(4)(b)(i) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(6) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) Sch. 8 para. 20(1) in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 6(b)(v)(aa) Sch. 10 para. 72 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Sch. 10 para. 45 in force at 12.3.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/341, reg. 2(n) (with reg. 3) Words in s. 220(2) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(7)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) S. 85 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) Sch. 2 paras. 1-4 omitted (14.10.2024) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), s. 32(2), Sch. para. 6; S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(bb) S. 229(8)(fb) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 27(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(y) S. 102(4) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 26, 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(x) Sch. 10 para. 31 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 151 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(i) S. 61(7)(a)-(j) in force at 5.2.2019 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c) Words in s. 2(1)(a) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 6(3)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(f) S. 58(1)(2)(4)-(9) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(u) Sch. 9 para. 4 in force at 30.12.2016 by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(p) S. 233(2)-(6) in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(e) Sch. 7 para. 6 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(t) Sch. 3 para. 12A and cross-heading inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 28(2), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(z) S. 133(3)(ba) inserted (1.11.2022 for specified purposes, 19.6.2023 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 4 para. 2(5); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 3; S.I. 2023/621, reg. 2 Words in s. 82(3)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 5 para. 2 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(n) Words in s. 174(3)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Words in s. 133(3)(b) substituted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 8.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), s. 183(1)(5)(e), Sch. 9 para. 74(5)(a); S.I. 2017/1249, reg. 2 (with reg. 3) Sch. 10 para. 45 in force at 8.8.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 14(c) (with regs. 15(4), 16, 19(6)) S. 250 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(q) S. 261(10)(c) and word inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 19(2)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(r) S. 107(2)(ha) inserted (1.11.2022 for specified purposes, 19.6.2023 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 4 para. 2(4); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 3; S.I. 2023/621, reg. 2 S. 227(10A) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 8(4), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(h) S. 10(1)(a) and word omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(2)(a) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) Sch. 10 para. 73 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Sch. 8 para. 6 in force at 26.9.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(g)(i) S. 44 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(p) Words in s. 219(2)(b) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(4)(b)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 76 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) S. 36 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(h) Sch. 8 para. 28 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(e)(iv) S. 225(15) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(6)(c), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 200(2)(b) and word inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(4)(b)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) S. 87(8)(aa) inserted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(3)(c), 8(3) S. 59 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(v) Sch. 3 para. 20 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Sch. 10 para. 64 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 224(4)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 S. 70(2A) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 10(2) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 10 para. 45 in force at 26.9.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/940, reg. 3(h) S. 106(1) in force at 28.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(a)(i) S. 163 in force at 22.8.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) S. 270(1) in force at 25.7.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(x) Sch. 10 para. 80 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 136 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(a) S. 160 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(d) S. 26(3)(e) repealed (31.12.2020) by The European Parliamentary Elections Etc. (Repeal, Revocation, Amendment and Saving Provisions) (United Kingdom and Gibraltar) (EU Exit) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1310), reg. 1, Sch. 1 Pt. 1 (as amended by S.I. 2019/1389, regs. 1, 2(2)) S. 228(6) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 7(3), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(g) S. 230(1)(d) and word inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 10(3)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(j) Sch. 10 Pt. 8 in force at 22.7.2020 for specified purposes by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(e)(iv) Sch. 8 para. 11 in force at 28.11.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(i) Words in s. 62(3) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 3(4)(a) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 148 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 10(a) S. 239 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(m) Words in s. 61 heading inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(4)(b)(5), 6(3) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 9 para. 6 in force at 25.7.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 2(x) Words in s. 86(1) omitted (5.2.2019) by virtue of The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 21(2)(b)(i) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 10 para. 88 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) (with reg. 9) Sch. 8 para. 11 in force at 5.12.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 3(k) S. 63 in force at 5.2.2019 by S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(d) Words in s. 40(3)(a) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Law Enforcement and Security (Amendment) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/742), regs. 1, 82(7)(b) (with reg. 83); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1) Words in s. 253(1)(a) substituted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 19(3)(a)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(r) S. 220(7) inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 4(5)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(d) S. 247 in force at 13.2.2017 by S.I. 2017/137, reg. 2(p) S. 111(4)-(7) in force at 28.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/1246, reg. 2(d) Sch. 10 para. 17 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) Words in s. 87(10) substituted (1.11.2018) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), regs. 1(3)(c), 8(4) Sch. 3 para. 3 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) S. 158 in force at 22.8.2018 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 3(b) S. 229(4)(f) power to repeal words conferred (1.9.2017) by Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (c. 25), ss. 240(5)(b), 272(1) (with Sch. 9 paras. 7, 8, 10); S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(i) (with regs. 6-11) S. 272(6) power extended (23.5.2018) by Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c. 13), ss. 63(6), 64(1) (with ss. 52(3), 53, 58) S. 270(1) in force at 30.12.2016 for specified purposes by S.I. 2016/1233, reg. 2(p) Words in s. 64(1)(b) substituted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 5(2)(c) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) S. 198 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 5(s) S. 115 in force at 31.5.2018 for specified purposes by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 4(m) S. 202 cross-heading inserted (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(6), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) S. 65(3A) inserted (5.2.2019) by The Data Retention and Acquisition Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1123), reg. 1(4)(d)(5), Sch. 1 para. 6(4) (see S.I. 2019/174, reg. 2(c)) Sch. 10 para. 96 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) Words in s. 225(13) renumbered as s. 225(13)(a) (14.10.2024) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 1(8)(b)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(a) S. 94(4)(b)(6)(10)(12) in force at 1.11.2018 by S.I. 2018/873, reg. 4(a) S. 231(1)-(8) in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 11(b)(i) S. 6 in force at 31.5.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 2(d) (with regs. 19(3)(a), 20) Words in s. 11(4)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Sch. 3 para. 21 in force at 27.6.2018 by S.I. 2018/652, reg. 8(w) Sch. 10 para. 75 in force at 1.9.2017 by S.I. 2017/859, reg. 2(j) S. 12(2) excluded (retrospectively) by Finance (No. 2) Act 2023 (c. 30), s. 352(1)(7) (with s. 352(3)) Sch. 2 para. 10 omitted (retrospectively) by Finance (No. 2) Act 2023 (c. 30), s. 352(6)(7) S. 12(2A) inserted (retrospectively) by Finance (No. 2) Act 2023 (c. 30), s. 352(4)(7) S. 243(1)(h) in force at 22.7.2020 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(b) Sch. 10 para. 6(5) in force at 22.7.2020 for specified purposes by S.I. 2020/766, reg. 2(e)(i) Pt. 7B inserted (14.10.2024 for specified purposes, 25.4.2025 in so far as not already in force) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 5, 32(2); S.I. 2024/1021, reg. 2(e); S.I. 2025/501, reg. 2 Ss. 258A, 258B inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 21(2), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(b) S. 90(4)-(4B) substituted for s. 90(4) (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(2)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) S. 90(5A) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(2)(c), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) S. 90(9A)(9B) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(2)(d), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) S. 90(11A) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(2)(f), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) S. 90(14)-(16) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(2)(g), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 90(5) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(2)(b)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 90(5) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(2)(b)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Word in s. 90(10) substituted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(2)(e)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 90(10) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(2)(e)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 95(5) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(3), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 255(10) substituted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(4), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) S. 257(3)-(3B) substituted for s. 257(3) (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(5)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) S. 257(4A) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(5)(c), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) S. 257(8A)(8B) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(5)(d), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) S. 257(10A) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(5)(f), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) S. 257(13)-(15) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(5)(g), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 257(4) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(5)(b)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 257(4) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(5)(b)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Word in s. 257(9) substituted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(5)(e)(i), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 257(9) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(5)(e)(ii), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in s. 267(3)(e) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(6)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Word in s. 267(3) omitted (20.6.2025) by virtue of Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 21(3)(a), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(b) S. 267(3)(ja) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 21(3)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(b) Words in s. 267(3)(j) inserted (20.6.2025) by Investigatory Powers (Amendment) Act 2024 (c. 9), ss. 18(6)(b), 32(2); S.I. 2025/722, reg. 2(a) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (8.7.2025) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(2) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (8.7.2025) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(3) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (8.7.2025) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(4) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (8.7.2025) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(5) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (8.7.2025) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(6) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (8.7.2025) by The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(9) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (8.7.2025) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(11)(a) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (8.7.2025) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(11)(b) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (8.7.2025) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(11)(c) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (8.7.2025) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 2(11)(d) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 2 para. 1 omitted (8.7.2025) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities and Designated Senior Officers) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/808), regs. 1(1), 3 S. 202A inserted (19.6.2025 for specified purposes, 20.8.2025 in so far as not already in force) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 74(12), 142(1)(2)(h); S.I. 2025/904, reg. 2(c) Words in s. 202(4) substituted (20.8.2025) by virtue of Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 74(11), 142(1); S.I. 2025/904, reg. 2(c) S. 267(3)(ea) inserted (20.8.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 74(13), 142(1); S.I. 2025/904, reg. 2(c) Words in s. 199(2)(a) inserted (17.11.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 90(10), 142(1); S.I. 2025/996, reg. 2(2)(b) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (1.4.2026) by Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025 (c. 28), ss. 6, 109(1) (with ss. 72, 105); S.I. 2026/371, reg. 2(a) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 Table omitted (7.4.2026) by virtue of Employment Rights Act 2025 (c. 36), s. 159(3), Sch. 10 para. 88(2) (with s. 147 Sch. 11); S.I. 2026/323, reg. 4(1)(55)(e) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table inserted (7.4.2026) by The Employment Rights Act 2025 (Investigatory Powers) (Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2026 (S.I. 2026/351), regs. 1(2)(a), 2(2) Sch. 10 para. 35 omitted (7.4.2026) by virtue of Employment Rights Act 2025 (c. 36), s. 159(3), Sch. 10 para. 88(3) (with s. 147 Sch. 11); S.I. 2026/323, reg. 4(1)(55)(e) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (11.5.2026) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities) Regulations 2026 (S.I. 2026/426), regs. 1(1), 2(2)(a) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (11.5.2026) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities) Regulations 2026 (S.I. 2026/426), regs. 1(1), 2(2)(b) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (11.5.2026) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities) Regulations 2026 (S.I. 2026/426), regs. 1(1), 2(2)(c) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (11.5.2026) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities) Regulations 2026 (S.I. 2026/426), regs. 1(1), 2(2)(d) Words in Sch. 4 Pt. 1 table omitted (11.5.2026) by virtue of The Investigatory Powers (Communications Data) (Relevant Public Authorities) Regulations 2026 (S.I. 2026/426), regs. 1(1), 2(2)(e)