Counter-Terrorism Act 2008

Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 An Act to confer further powers to gather and share information for counter-terrorism and other purposes; to make further provision about the detention and questioning of terrorist suspects and the prosecution and punishment of terrorist offences; to impose notification requirements on persons convicted of such offences; to confer further powers to act against terrorist financing, money laundering and certain other activities; to provide for review of certain Treasury decisions and about evidence in, and other matters connected with, review proceedings; to amend the law relating to inquiries; to amend the definition of “terrorism”; to amend the enactments relating to terrorist offences, control orders and the forfeiture of terrorist cash; to provide for recovering the costs of policing at certain gas facilities; to amend provisions about the appointment of special advocates in Northern Ireland; and for connected purposes. 9 Be it enacted by the Queen's most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as follows:— This section applies to a search under any of the following provisions— section 43(1) of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (search of suspected terrorist); section 43(2) of that Act (search of person arrested under section 41 on suspicion of being a terrorist); section 43(4B) of that Act (search of vehicle in relation to suspected terrorist); section 43A of that Act (search of vehicle suspected of being used for the purposes of terrorism); section 43C(1) of that Act (search of terrorist offender released on licence); section 43C(5) of that Act (search of vehicle in connection with search of terrorist offender released on licence); section 43D of that Act (search of premises of offender released on licence for purposes connected with protection from risk of terrorism); paragraph 1, 3, 11, 15, 28 or 31 of Schedule 5 to that Act (terrorist investigations); section 52(1) or (3)(b) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (search for evidence of commission of weapons-related offences); . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . section 28 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11) (search for terrorist publications). paragraphs 6, 7, 8 or 10 of Schedule 5 to the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011. A constable who carries out a search to which this section applies may, for the purpose of ascertaining whether a document is one that may be seized, remove the document to another place for examination and retain it there until the examination is completed. Where a constable carrying out a search to which this section applies has power to remove a document by virtue of this section, and the document— consists of information that is stored in electronic form, and is accessible from the premises being searched, the constable may require the document to be produced in a form in which it can be taken away, and in which it is visible and legible or from which it can readily be produced in a visible and legible form. A constable has the same powers of seizure in relation to a document removed under this section as the constable would have if it had not been removed (and if anything discovered on examination after removal had been discovered without it having been removed). A person who wilfully obstructs a constable in the exercise of the power conferred by section 1 commits an offence. A person guilty of an offence under this section is liable on summary conviction— in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 51 weeks or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale, or both; in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding twelve months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale, or both; in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale, or both. In subsection (2)(a) as it applies in relation to an offence committed before section 281(5) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44) comes into force, for “51 weeks” substitute “ six months ”. Section 1 does not authorise a constable to remove a document if the constable has reasonable cause to believe— it is an item subject to legal privilege, or it has an item subject to legal privilege comprised in it. Subsection (1)(b) does not prevent the removal of a document if it is not reasonably practicable for the item subject to legal privilege to be separated from the rest of the document without prejudicing any use of the rest of the document that would be lawful if it were subsequently seized. If, after a document has been removed under section 1, it is discovered that— it has an item subject to legal privilege comprised in it, the document must be returned forthwith. Subsection (3)(b) does not require the return of a document if it is not reasonably practicable for the item subject to legal privilege to be separated from the rest of the document without prejudicing any use of the rest of the document that would be lawful if it were subsequently seized. Where an item subject to legal privilege is removed under subsection (2) or retained under subsection (4), it must not be examined or put to any other use except to the extent necessary for facilitating the examination of the rest of the document. For the purposes of this section “item subject to legal privilege”— in England and Wales, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60); in Scotland, has the meaning given by section 412 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 29); in Northern Ireland, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)). A constable who removes a document under section 1 must make a written record of the removal. The record must be made as soon as is reasonably practicable and in any event within the period of 24 hours beginning with the time when the document was removed. The record must— describe the document, specify the object of the removal, where the document was found in the course of a search of a person, state the person's name (if known), where the document was found in the course of a search of any premises, state the address of the premises where the document was found, where the document was found in the course of a search of any premises, state the name (if known) of— any person who, when the record is made, appears to the constable to have been the occupier of the premises when the document was found, and any person who, when the record is made, appears to the constable to have had custody or control of the document when it was found, and state the date and time when the document was removed. If, in a case where the document was found in the course of a search of a person, the constable does not know the person's name, the record must include a description of the person. If, in a case where the document was found in the course of a search of any premises, the constable does not know the name of a person mentioned in subsection (3)(e) but is able to provide a description of that person, the record must include such a description. The record must identify the constable by reference to the constable's police number. The following are entitled, on a request made to the constable, to a copy of the record made under this section— where the document was found in the course of a search of a person, that person; and where the document was found in the course of a search of any premises— the occupier of the premises when it was found, and any person who had custody or control of the document when it was found. The constable must provide the copy within a reasonable time from the making of the request. If, in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, the document is found in the course of a search under a warrant, the constable must make an endorsement on the warrant stating that the document has been removed under section 1. In the application of this section in relation to the search of a vehicle, the reference to the address of the premises is to the location of the vehicle together with its registration number (if any). A document may not be retained by virtue of section 1 for more than 48 hours without further authorisation. A constable of at least the rank of chief inspector may authorise the retention of the document for a further period or periods if satisfied that— the examination of the document is being carried out expeditiously, and it is necessary to continue the examination for the purpose of ascertaining whether the document is one that may be seized. This does not permit the retention of a document after the end of the period of 96 hours beginning with the time when it was removed for examination. Where— a document is retained by virtue of section 5, and a request for access to the document is made to the officer in charge of the investigation by a person within subsection (3), the officer must grant that person access to the document, under the supervision of a constable, subject to subsection (4). a request for a copy of the document is made to the officer in charge of the investigation by a person within subsection (3), that person must be provided with a copy of the document within a reasonable time from the making of the request, subject to subsection (4). The persons entitled to make a request under subsection (1) or (2) are— where the document was found in the course of a search of a person, that person, any person who had custody or control of the document when it was found, and a person acting on behalf of a person within paragraph (a) or (b). The officer in charge of the investigation may refuse access to the document, or (as the case may be) refuse to provide a copy of it, if the officer has reasonable grounds for believing that to do so— would prejudice any investigation for the purposes of which— the original search was carried out, or the document was removed or is being retained, would prejudice the investigation of any offence, would prejudice any criminal proceedings that may be brought as the result of an investigation within paragraph (a) or (b), or would facilitate the commission of an offence. In this section— “the officer in charge of the investigation” means the officer in charge of the investigation for the purposes of which the document is being retained; and “the original search” means the search in the course of which the document was removed. Where a document is removed under section 1 it must not be photographed or copied, except that— a document may be copied for the purpose of providing a copy in response to a request under section 6(2), and a document consisting of information stored in electronic form may be copied for the purpose of producing it in a visible and legible form. Where the original document is returned, any copy under subsection (1)(b) must— in the case of a copy in electronic form, be destroyed or made inaccessible as soon as is reasonably practicable, and in any other case, be returned at the same time as the original document is returned. The following are entitled, on a request made to the relevant chief officer of police, to a certificate that subsection (2) has been complied with— where the document was found in the course of a search of a person, that person; The certificate must be issued by the relevant chief officer of police, or a person authorised by or on behalf of that chief officer, not later than the end of the period of three months beginning with the day on which the request is made. For this purpose the relevant chief officer of police is— where the search was carried out in England or Wales, the chief officer of police in whose area the search was carried out; where the search was carried out in Scotland, the chief constable of the Police Service of Scotland; where the search was carried out in Northern Ireland, the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland. Where a document removed under section 1 is required to be returned, it must be returned— where the document was found in the course of a search of a person, to that person; where the document was found in the course of a search of any premises, to the occupier of the premises when it was found. Subsection (1) does not apply where a person who is required to return the document is satisfied that another person has a better right to it; and in such a case it must be returned— to that other person, or to whoever appears to the person required to return the document to have the best right to it. Where different persons claim to be entitled to the return of the document, it may be retained for as long as is reasonably necessary for the determination of the person to whom it must be returned. This section also applies in relation to a copy of a document that is required to be returned at the same time as the original; and in such a case references to the document in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (1) are to the original. In sections 1 to 8 “document” includes any record and, in particular, includes information stored in electronic form. In the application of those sections to a search under 52(1) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24), for references to a constable substitute references to an authorised officer within the meaning of that section. In the application of those sections in relation to the search of a vehicle references to the occupier of the premises are to the person in charge of the vehicle. The Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) is amended as follows. In section 63A(1) (fingerprints, impressions of footwear and samples: what they may be checked against), for paragraphs (a) and (b) substitute— other fingerprints, impressions of footwear or samples— to which the person seeking to check has access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant law-enforcement authorities or are held in connection with or as a result of an investigation of an offence, or which are held by or on behalf of the Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service; information derived from other samples— which is contained in records to which the person seeking to check has access and which are held as mentioned in paragraph (a)(i) above, or which is held by or on behalf of the Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service. In section 63A(1ZA) (fingerprints from a person whose identity is unclear: what they may be checked against), for the words from “other fingerprints” to the end, substitute other fingerprints— to which the person seeking to check has access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant law-enforcement authorities or which are held in connection with or as a result of an investigation of an offence, or which are held by or on behalf of the Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service. The Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)) is amended as follows. In Article 63A(1) (fingerprints and samples: what they may be checked against), for paragraphs (a) and (b), substitute— In Article 63A(1ZA) (fingerprints from a person whose identity is unclear: what they may be checked against), for “other fingerprints” to the end, substitute In Article 64(1A) (purposes for which fingerprints or samples may be retained and used), for the words from “except for purposes” to the end substitute “ except as described in paragraph (1AB) ”. After paragraph (1AA) of that Article (inserted by section 12) insert— The fingerprints, impressions of footwear or samples may be used— in the interests of national security, for purposes related to the prevention or detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the conduct of a prosecution, or for purposes related to the identification of a deceased person or of the person from whom the material came. In paragraph (1B) of that Article, after “(1AA)” (inserted by section 12) insert “ or (1AB) ”. This section applies to fingerprints, DNA samples and DNA profiles that— are held for the purposes of national security by a law enforcement authority under the law of England and Wales or Northern Ireland, and are not held subject to existing statutory restrictions. Material to which this section applies (“section 18 material”) must be destroyed if it appears to the responsible officer that the condition in subsection (3) is not met. The condition is that the material has been— obtained by the law enforcement authority pursuant to an authorisation under Part 3 of the Police Act 1997 (authorisation of action in respect of property), obtained by the law enforcement authority in the course of surveillance, or use of a covert human intelligence source, authorised under Part 2 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, supplied to the law enforcement authority by another law enforcement authority, or otherwise lawfully obtained or acquired by the law enforcement authority for any of the purposes mentioned in section 18D(1). In any other case, section 18 material must be destroyed unless it is retained by the law enforcement authority under any power conferred by section 18A , 18AA or 18B, but this is subject to subsection (5). A DNA sample to which this section applies must be destroyed— as soon as a DNA profile has been derived from the sample, or if sooner, before the end of the period of 6 months beginning with the date on which it was taken. Section 18 material which ceases to be retained under a power mentioned in subsection (4) may continue to be retained under any other such power which applies to it. Nothing in this section prevents section 18 material from being checked against other fingerprints, DNA samples or DNA profiles held by a law enforcement authority within such time as may reasonably be required for the check, if the responsible officer considers the check to be desirable. For the purposes of subsection (1), the following are “existing statutory restrictions”— paragraph 18(2) of Schedule 2 to the Immigration Act 1971; sections 22, 63A and 63D to 63U of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 and any corresponding provision in an order under section 113 of that Act; Articles 24, 63A and 64 of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)); section 2(2) of the Security Service Act 1989; section 2(2) of the Intelligence Services Act 1994; paragraphs 20(3) and 20A to 20J of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000; section 56 of the Criminal Justice and Police Act 2001; paragraph 8 of Schedule 4 to the International Criminal Court Act 2001; sections 73, 83, 87, 88 and 89 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 and any provision relating to the retention of material in an order made under section 74, 93 or 323 of that Act; paragraphs 5 to 14 of Schedule 6 to the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011; paragraphs 43 to 51 of Schedule 3 to the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019. Part 4 of Schedule 6 to the National Security Act 2023; paragraphs 5 to 15 of Schedule 12 to that Act. Section 18 material which is not a DNA sample and relates to a person who has no previous convictions or only one exempt conviction may be retained by the law enforcement authority until the end of the retention period specified in subsection (2), but this is subject to subsections (4) to (9). The retention period is— in the case of fingerprints, the period of 3 years beginning with the date on which the fingerprints were taken, and in the case of a DNA profile, the period of 3 years beginning with the date on which the DNA sample from which the profile was derived was taken (or, if the profile was derived from more than one DNA sample, the date on which the first of those samples was taken). Section 18 material which is not a DNA sample and relates to a person who has previously been convicted of a recordable offence or recordable-equivalent offence (other than a single exempt conviction), or is so convicted before the material is required to be destroyed by virtue of this section, may be retained indefinitely. Section 18 material which is not a DNA sample may be retained indefinitely if— it is held by the law enforcement authority in a form which does not include information which identifies the person to whom the material relates (a “pseudonymised form”), and the law enforcement authority does not know, and has never known, the identity of the person to whom the material relates. In a case where section 18 material is being retained by a law enforcement authority under subsection (4), if— the law enforcement authority comes to know the identity of the person to whom the material relates, and the material relates to a person who has no previous convictions or only one exempt conviction, the material may be retained by the law enforcement authority until the end of the retention period specified in subsection (6). The retention period is the period of 3 years beginning with the date on which the identity of the person to whom the material relates comes to be known by the law enforcement authority. Section 18 material which is not a DNA sample may be retained indefinitely by a law enforcement authority if— the authority obtains or acquires the material directly or indirectly from an overseas law enforcement authority, the authority obtains or acquires the material in a form which includes information which identifies the person to whom the material relates, as soon as reasonably practicable after obtaining or acquiring the material, the authority takes the steps necessary for it to hold the material in a pseudonymised form, and having taken those steps, the law enforcement authority continues to hold the material in a pseudonymised form. In a case where section 18 material is being retained by a law enforcement authority under subsection (7), if— the law enforcement authority ceases to hold the material in a pseudonymised form, and the material may be retained by the law enforcement authority until the end of the retention period specified in subsection (9). The retention period is the period of 3 years beginning with the date on which the law enforcement authority first ceases to hold the material in a pseudonymised form. This section applies to section 18 material which is not a DNA sample where the law enforcement authority obtained or acquired the material as part of a request for assistance, or a notification of a threat, sent to the United Kingdom via INTERPOL’s systems. The law enforcement authority may retain the material until the National Central Bureau informs the authority that the request or notification has been cancelled or withdrawn. If the law enforcement authority is the National Central Bureau, it may retain the material until it becomes aware that the request or notification has been cancelled or withdrawn. “INTERPOL” means the organisation called the International Criminal Police Organization - INTERPOL; “the National Central Bureau” means the body appointed for the time being in accordance with INTERPOL’s constitution to serve as the United Kingdom’s National Central Bureau. The reference in subsection (1) to material obtained or acquired as part of a request or notification includes material obtained or acquired as part of a communication, sent to the United Kingdom via INTERPOL’s systems, correcting, updating or otherwise supplementing the request or notification. The Secretary of State may by regulations amend section 18AA to make such changes as the Secretary of State considers appropriate in consequence of— changes to the name of the organisation which, when section 18AA was enacted, was called the International Criminal Police Organization - INTERPOL (“the organisation”), changes to arrangements made by the organisation which involve fingerprints or DNA profiles being provided to members of the organisation (whether changes to existing arrangements or changes putting in place new arrangements), or changes to the organisation’s arrangements for liaison between the organisation and its members or between its members. Regulations under this section are subject to affirmative resolution procedure. Section 18 material which is not a DNA sample may be retained for as long as a national security determination made by the responsible officer , or by a chief officer of police, has effect in relation to it. A national security determination is made if the responsible officer , or a chief officer of police, determines that it is necessary for any such section 18 material to be retained for the purposes of national security. A national security determination— must be made in writing, has effect for a maximum of 5 years beginning with the date on which the determination is made, and may be renewed. In this section “chief officer of police” means a person other than the responsible officer who is— the chief officer of police of a police force in England and Wales, or the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland. This section applies where section 18 material is or includes a person's fingerprints (“the original fingerprints”). An appropriate officer may make a determination under this section in respect of any further fingerprints taken from the same person (“the further fingerprints”) if conditions 1 and 2 are met. Condition 1 is met if the further fingerprints— are section 18 material, or are taken under— Part 5 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, Article 61 of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)), paragraph 10 of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000, paragraph 1 of Schedule 6 to the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011, or paragraph 34 of Schedule 3 to the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019. Condition 2 is met if both the original fingerprints and the further fingerprints— are held by a law enforcement authority under the law of England and Wales, or are held by a law enforcement authority under the law of Northern Ireland. Where a determination under this section is made in respect of the further fingerprints— the further fingerprints may be retained for as long as the original fingerprints are retained under a power conferred by section 18A , 18AA or 18B, and a requirement under any enactment to destroy the further fingerprints does not apply for as long as their retention is authorised by paragraph (a). Subsection (5)(a) does not prevent the further fingerprints being retained after the original fingerprints fall to be destroyed if the continued retention of the further fingerprints is authorised under any enactment. A written record must be made of a determination under this section. “appropriate officer” means— a constable, or an officer of Revenue and Customs who is not below such grade as is designated for the purposes of this section by the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customers; “enactment” includes an enactment comprised in, or in an instrument made under, Northern Ireland legislation. If fingerprints are required by section 18 to be destroyed, any copies of the fingerprints held by the law enforcement authority concerned must also be destroyed. If a DNA profile is required by that section to be destroyed, no copy may be retained by the law enforcement authority concerned except in a form which does not include information which identifies the person to whom the DNA profile relates. Section 18 material must not be used other than— for the purposes of a terrorist investigation, for purposes related to the identification of a deceased person or of the person to whom the material relates. Subject to subsection (1), section 18 material may be checked against other fingerprints, DNA samples or DNA profiles held by a law enforcement authority or the Scottish Police Authority if the responsible officer considers the check to be desirable. Material which is required by section 18 to be destroyed must not at any time after it is required to be destroyed be used— in evidence against the person to whom the material relates, or for the purposes of the investigation of any offence. the reference to using material includes a reference to allowing any check to be made against it and to disclosing it to any person, the reference to crime includes a reference to any conduct which— constitutes one or more criminal offences (whether under the law of a part of the United Kingdom or of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom), or is, or corresponds to, any conduct which, if it all took place in any one part of the United Kingdom, would constitute one or more criminal offences, and the references to an investigation and to a prosecution include references, respectively, to any investigation outside the United Kingdom of any crime or suspected crime and to a prosecution brought in respect of any crime in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom. In sections 18 to 18D and this section— “DNA profile” means any information derived from a DNA sample; “DNA sample” means any material that has come from a human body and consists of or includes human cells; “fingerprints” means a record (in any form and produced by any method) of the skin pattern and other physical characteristics or features of a person's fingers or either of a person's palms; “law enforcement authority” means— a police force, the tri-service serious crime unit, the National Crime Agency, the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs, or an overseas law enforcement authority; “overseas law enforcement authority” means a person formed or existing under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom so far as exercising functions which— correspond to those of a police force, or otherwise involve the investigation or prosecution of offences; “police force” means any of the following— the metropolitan police force; a police force maintained under section 2 of the Police Act 1996 (police forces in England and Wales outside London); the City of London police force; the Police Service of Scotland; the Police Service of Northern Ireland; the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve; the Ministry of Defence Police; the Royal Navy Police; the Royal Military Police; the Royal Air Force Police; the British Transport Police; “recordable offence” has— in relation to a conviction in England and Wales, the meaning given by section 118(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, and in relation to a conviction in Northern Ireland, the meaning given by Article 2(2) of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)); “recordable-equivalent offence” means an offence under the law of a country or territory outside England and Wales and Northern Ireland where the act constituting the offence would constitute a recordable offence if done in England and Wales or Northern Ireland (whether or not the act constituted such an offence when the person was convicted); “the responsible officer” means— in relation to material obtained or acquired by a police force in England and Wales, the chief officer of the police force; in relation to material obtained or acquired by the Police Service of Northern Ireland or the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve, the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland; in relation to material obtained or acquired by the Ministry of Defence Police, the Chief Constable of the Ministry of Defence Police; in relation to material obtained or acquired by the Royal Navy Police, the Royal Military Police or the Royal Air Force Police, the Provost Marshal for the police force which obtained or acquired the material; in relation to material obtained or acquired by the tri-service serious crime unit, the Provost Marshal for serious crime; in relation to material obtained or acquired by the British Transport Police, the Chief Constable of the British Transport Police; in relation to material obtained or acquired by the National Crime Agency, the Director General of the National Crime Agency; in relation to material obtained or acquired by the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs, any of those Commissioners; in relation to any other material, such person as the Secretary of State may by order specify; “section 18 material” has the meaning given by section 18(2); “terrorist investigation” has the meaning given by section 32 of the Terrorism Act 2000. “tri-service serious crime unit” means the unit described in section 375(1A) of the Armed Forces Act 2006. An order under subsection (1) is subject to negative resolution procedure. For the purposes of section 18A, a person is to be treated as having been convicted of an offence in England and Wales or Northern Ireland if the person— has been given a caution in respect of the offence which, at the time of the caution, the person has admitted, has been warned or reprimanded under section 65 of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 for the offence, has been found not guilty of the offence by reason of insanity, or has been found to be under a disability and to have done the act charged in respect of the offence. Sections 18A and this section, so far as they relate to persons convicted of an offence, have effect despite anything in the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974. But a person is not to be treated as having been convicted of an offence if that conviction is a disregarded conviction or caution by virtue of section 92 of the Protection of Freedoms Act 2012. For the purposes of section 18A, a person is to be treated as having been convicted of an offence in a country or territory outside England and Wales and Northern Ireland if, in respect of such an offence, a court exercising jurisdiction under the law of that country or territory has made a finding equivalent to— a finding that the person is not guilty by reason of insanity, or a finding that the person is under a disability and did the act charged against the person in respect of the offence. For the purposes of section 18A— a person has no previous convictions if the person has not previously been convicted — in England and Wales or Northern Ireland of a recordable offence, or in a country or territory outside England and Wales and Northern Ireland, of a recordable-equivalent offence, and if the person has been previously so convicted ..., the conviction is exempt if it is in respect of an offence, other than a qualifying offence or qualifying-equivalent offence, committed when the person was aged under 18. In this section, “qualifying offence” has— in relation to a conviction in respect of a recordable offence committed in England and Wales, the meaning given by section 65A of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, and in relation to a conviction in respect of a recordable offence committed in Northern Ireland, the meaning given by Article 53A of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)). In subsection (6), “qualifying-equivalent offence” means an offence under the law of a country or territory outside England and Wales and Northern Ireland where the act constituting the offence would constitute a qualifying offence if done in England and Wales or Northern Ireland (whether or not the act constituted such an offence when the person was convicted). If a person is convicted of more than one offence arising out of a single course of action, those convictions are to be treated as a single conviction for the purposes of calculating under section 18A whether the person has been convicted of only one offence. A person may disclose information to any of the intelligence services for the purposes of the exercise by that service of any of its functions. Information obtained by any of the intelligence services in connection with the exercise of any of its functions may be used by that service in connection with the exercise of any of its other functions. Information obtained by the Security Service for the purposes of any of its functions may be disclosed by it— for the purpose of the proper discharge of its functions, for the purpose of the prevention or detection of serious crime, or for the purpose of any criminal proceedings. Information obtained by the Secret Intelligence Service for the purposes of any of its functions may be disclosed by it— Information obtained by GCHQ for the purposes of any of its functions may be disclosed by it— for the purpose of the proper discharge of its functions, or A disclosure under this section does not breach— any obligation of confidence owed by the person making the disclosure, or any other restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed). The provisions of this section are subject to section 20 (savings and other supplementary provisions). The provisions of section 19 (disclosure and use of information) do not affect the duties with respect to the obtaining or disclosure of information imposed— on the Director-General of the Security Service, by section 2(2) of the Security Service Act 1989; on the Chief of the Intelligence Service, by section 2(2) of the Intelligence Services Act 1994; on the Director of GCHQ, by section 4(2) of that Act. Nothing in that section authorises a disclosure that— contravenes the data protection legislation, or is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016. The provisions of that section are without prejudice to any rule of law authorising the obtaining, use or disclosure of information by any of the intelligence services. Schedule 1 contains amendments consequential on that section. In this section, “the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act). In sections 19 and 20 “the intelligence services” means the Security Service, the Secret Intelligence Service and GCHQ. References in section 19 to the functions of those services are— in the case of the Security Service, to the functions specified in section 1(2) to (4) of the Security Service Act 1989 (c. 5); in the case of the Secret Intelligence Service, to the functions specified in section 1(1)(a) and (b) of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c. 13), exercised in accordance with section 1(2) of that Act; in the case of GCHQ— to the functions specified in section 3(1)(a) of that Act, exercised in accordance with section 3(2) of that Act, and to the functions specified in section 3(1)(b) of that Act. In sections 19, 20 and this section “GCHQ” has the same meaning as in the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (see section 3(3) of that Act). Section 81(5) of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (meaning of “prevention” and “detection”), so far as it relates to serious crime, applies for the purposes of section 19 as it applies for the purposes of the provisions of that Act not contained in Chapter 1 of Part 1. The following provisions apply in England and Wales. A judge of the Crown Court may authorise the questioning of a person about an offence— after the person has been charged with the offence or been officially informed that they may be prosecuted for it, or after the person has been sent for trial for the offence, if the offence is a terrorism offence or it appears to the judge that the offence has a terrorist connection. The judge— must specify the period during which questioning is authorised, and may impose such conditions as appear to be necessary in the interests of justice, which may include conditions as to the place where the questioning is to be carried out. The period during which questioning is authorised— begins when questioning pursuant to the authorisation begins and runs continuously from that time (whether or not questioning continues), and must not exceed 48 hours. This is without prejudice to any application for a further authorisation under this section. Where the person is in prison or otherwise lawfully detained, the judge may authorise the person's removal to another place and detention there for the purpose of being questioned. A judge must not authorise the questioning of a person under this section unless satisfied— that further questioning of the person is necessary in the interests of justice, that the investigation for the purposes of which the further questioning is proposed is being conducted diligently and expeditiously, and that what is authorised will not interfere unduly with the preparation of the person's defence to the charge in question or any other criminal charge. Codes of practice under section 66 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) must make provision about the questioning of a person by a constable in accordance with this section. Nothing in this section prevents codes of practice under that section making other provision for the questioning of a person by a constable about an offence— after the person has been sent for trial for the offence. In section 34(1) of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33) (effect of accused's failure to mention facts when questioned or charged: circumstances in which the section applies) after paragraph (b) insert— ; or at any time after being charged with the offence, on being questioned under section 22 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (post-charge questioning), failed to mention any such fact, Nothing in section 36 or 37 of that Act (effect of accused's failure or refusal to account for certain matters) is to be read as excluding the operation of those sections in relation to a request made in the course of questioning under this section. The following provisions apply in Scotland. On the application of the prosecutor, a sheriff may authorise the questioning of a person about an offence— after the person has been charged with the offence, or after the person has appeared on petition in respect of the offence, if the offence is a terrorism offence or it appears to the sheriff that the offence has a terrorist connection. The sheriff— Where the person is in prison or otherwise lawfully detained, the sheriff may authorise the person's removal to another place and detention there for the purpose of being questioned. A sheriff must not authorise the questioning of a person under this section unless satisfied— Evidence of any statement obtained from a person as a result of questioning under this section is not inadmissible solely because the questioning occurred after the person had been charged (or had appeared on petition). In this section “charged” means charged by the police. The following provisions apply in Northern Ireland. A district judge (magistrates' courts) may authorise the questioning of a person about an offence— after the person has been committed for trial for the offence, if the offence is a terrorism offence. may impose such conditions as appear to the judge to be necessary in the interests of justice, which may include conditions as to the place where the questioning is to be carried out. A district judge (magistrates' courts) must not authorise the questioning of a person under this section unless satisfied— Codes of practice under Article 65 of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)) must make provision about the questioning of a person by a constable in accordance with this section. Nothing in this section prevents codes of practice under that Article making other provision for the questioning of a person by a constable about an offence— after the person has been committed for trial for the offence. In Article 3(1) of the Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1988 (S.I. 1988/1987 (N.I. 20)) (effect of accused's failure to mention facts when questioned or charged: circumstances in which the article applies) after sub-paragraph (b) insert— at any time after being charged with the offence, on being questioned under section 24 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (post-charge questioning), failed to mention any such fact, Nothing in Article 5 or 6 of that Order (effect of accused's failure or refusal to account for certain matters) is to be read as excluding the operation of those Articles in relation to a request made in the course of questioning under this section. This section applies to any interview of a person by a constable under section 22, 23 or 24 (post-charge questioning). Any such interview must be video recorded, and the video recording must be with sound. The Secretary of State must issue a code of practice about the video recording of interviews to which this section applies. The interview and video recording must be conducted in accordance with that code of practice. A code of practice under this section— may make provision in relation to a particular part of the United Kingdom, and may make different provision for different parts of the United Kingdom. This section applies to the code of practice under section 25 (recording of interviews). The Secretary of State must— publish a draft of the proposed code, and consider any representations made about the draft, and may modify the draft in the light of the representations made. The Secretary of State must lay a draft of the code before Parliament. After laying the draft code before Parliament the Secretary of State may bring it into operation by order. The order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure. The Secretary of State may revise a code and issue the revised code, and subsections (2) to (5) apply to a revised code as they apply to an original code. Failure to observe a provision of a code does not of itself render a constable liable to criminal or civil proceedings. A code— is admissible in evidence in criminal and civil proceedings, and shall be taken into account by a court or tribunal in any case in which it appears to the court or tribunal to be relevant. For the purposes of sections 22 to 24 (post-charge questioning) the following are terrorism offences— an offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)— sections 11 to 13 (offences relating to proscribed organisations), sections 15 to 19, 21A and 21D (offences relating to terrorist property), sections 38B and 39 (disclosure of and failure to disclose information about terrorism), section 54 (weapons training), sections 56 to 58A (directing terrorism, possessing things and collecting information for the purposes of terrorism), section 58B (entering or remaining in a designated area), sections 59 to 61 (inciting terrorism outside the United Kingdom), paragraph 14 of Schedule 5 (order for explanation of material: false or misleading statements), paragraph 1 of Schedule 6 (failure to provide customer information in connection with a terrorist investigation), paragraph 18 of Schedule 7 (offences in connection with port and border controls); an offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of any of sections 62 to 63D of that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain offences committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism etc); an offence under section 113 of the Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (use of noxious substances or things); an offence under any of the following provisions of Part 1 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11)— sections 1 and 2 (encouragement of terrorism), sections 5, 6 and 8 (preparation and training for terrorism), sections 9, 10 and 11 (offences relating to radioactive devices and material and nuclear facilities); an offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of section 17 of that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain offences committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism etc);

an offence under paragraph 8 or 9 of Schedule 3 to the Justice and Security (Northern Ireland) Act 2007 (c. 6) (offences in connection with searches for munitions and transmitters in Northern Ireland). Any ancillary offence in relation to an offence listed in subsection (1) is a terrorism offence for the purposes of sections 22 to 24. The Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (1). Any such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure. Where an offence to which this section applies is committed in the United Kingdom— proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place. The section applies to— section 47 (offences relating to stop and search powers), section 51 (parking a vehicle in contravention of an authorisation or restriction), sections 56 to 58A (directing terrorism and possessing things or collecting information for the purposes of terrorism), section 116 (failure to stop a vehicle when required to do so), an offence under section 113 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (use of noxious substances or things to cause harm and intimidate); an offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11)— sections 9, 10 and 11 (offences relating to radioactive devices etc). The Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (2). The power conferred by subsection (3) may be exercised so as to add offences to subsection (2) only if it appears to the Secretary of State necessary to do so for the purpose of dealing with terrorism. In section 1 of the Justice and Security (Northern Ireland) Act 2007 (c. 6) (issue of certificate for trial without a jury), after subsection (6) insert— The Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland may not issue a certificate under subsection (2) if— the proceedings are taken in Northern Ireland only by virtue of section 28 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008, and it appears to the Director that the only condition that is met is condition 4. In section 117(2A) of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) and in section 19(2) of the Terrorism Act 2006 (cases in which permission of Attorney General or Advocate General for Northern Ireland required before DPP gives consent to prosecution), after “committed” insert “ outside the United Kingdom or ”. This section applies where a court in Northern Ireland is considering for the purposes of sentence the seriousness of an offence specified in Schedule 2 (offences where terrorist connection to be considered) within subsection (5A) or (5B). If having regard to the material before it for the purposes of sentencing it appears to the court that the offence has or may have a terrorist connection, the court must determine whether that is the case. For that purpose the court may hear evidence, and must take account of any representations made by the prosecution and the defence, as in the case of any other matter relevant for the purposes of sentence. If the court determines that the offence has a terrorist connection, the court— must treat that fact as an aggravating factor, and must state in open court that the offence was so aggravated. In this section “sentence”, in relation to an offence, includes any order made by a court when dealing with a person in respect of the offence. An offence is within this subsection if it— was committed on or after the day on which section 1 of the Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 came into force, is punishable on indictment with imprisonment for more than 2 years (or would be so punishable in the case of an offender aged at least 21), and is not specified in Schedule 1A. was committed— on or after 12 April 2019 (being the date on which section 8 of the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019, which extended this section to Northern Ireland, came into force), but before the day on which section 1 of the Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 came into force, and is specified in Schedule 2. Where an offence is found to have been committed over a period of 2 or more days, or at some time during a period of 2 or more days, it must be taken for the purposes of subsections (5A) and (5B) to have been committed on the last of those days. This section has effect in relation only to offences committed on or after the day it comes into force. This section applies where in Scotland, in relation to an offence specified in Schedule 2 (offences where terrorist connection to be considered) within subsection (4A) or (4B)— it is libelled in an indictment, and proved, that the offence has been aggravated by reason of having a terrorist connection. Where this section applies, the court must take the aggravation into account in determining the appropriate sentence. Where the sentence imposed by the court in respect of the offence is different from that which the court would have imposed if the offence had not been aggravated by reason of having a terrorist connection, the court must state the extent of, and the reasons for, the difference. For the purposes of this section, evidence from a single source is sufficient to prove that an offence has been aggravated by reason of having a terrorist connection. on or after the relevant date, but The relevant date for the purposes of subsection (4B)(a)(i) is— 18 June 2009 (being the date on which this section came into force), in relation to any offence that is not mentioned in paragraph (b); 12 April 2019 (being the date on which section 8 of the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019, which amended Schedule 2, came into force) in relation to any of the following offences under the law of Scotland— assault by explosive device; assault to severe injury; assault and poisoning; poisoning. Where an offence is found to have been committed over a period of 2 or more days, or at some time during a period of 2 or more days, it must be taken for the purposes of subsections (4A) to (4C) to have been committed on the last of those days. For section 23 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (forfeiture) substitute— The court by or before which a person is convicted of an offence under any of sections 15 to 18 may make a forfeiture order in accordance with the provisions of this section. Where a person is convicted of an offence under section 15(1) or (2) or 16, the court may order the forfeiture of any money or other property which, at the time of the offence, the person had in their possession or under their control and which— had been used for the purposes of terrorism, or they intended should be used, or had reasonable cause to suspect might be used, for those purposes. Where a person is convicted of an offence under section 15(3) the court may order the forfeiture of any money or other property which, at the time of the offence, the person had in their possession or under their control and which— which, at that time, they knew or had reasonable cause to suspect would or might be used for those purposes. Where a person is convicted of an offence under section 17 or 18 the court may order the forfeiture of any money or other property which, at the time of the offence, the person had in their possession or under their control and which— was, at that time, intended by them to be used for those purposes. Where a person is convicted of an offence under section 17 the court may order the forfeiture of the money or other property to which the arrangement in question related, and which— at the time of the offence, the person knew or had reasonable cause to suspect would or might be used for those purposes. Where a person is convicted of an offence under section 18 the court may order the forfeiture of the money or other property to which the arrangement in question related. Where a person is convicted of an offence under any of sections 15 to 18, the court may order the forfeiture of any money or other property which wholly or partly, and directly or indirectly, is received by any person as a payment or other reward in connection with the commission of the offence. After section 23 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (forfeiture: terrorist property offences) insert— The court by or before which a person is convicted of an offence to which this section applies may order the forfeiture of any money or other property in relation to which the following conditions are met— that it was, at the time of the offence, in the possession or control of the person convicted; and that— it had been used for the purposes of terrorism, it was intended by that person that it should be used for the purposes of terrorism, or the court believes that it will be used for the purposes of terrorism unless forfeited. This section applies to an offence under— any of the following provisions of this Act— section 54 (weapons training); section 57, 58 or 58A (possessing things and collecting information for the purposes of terrorism); section 59, 60 or 61 (inciting terrorism outside the United Kingdom); any of the following provisions of Part 1 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11)— section 2 (dissemination of terrorist publications); section 5 (preparation of terrorist acts); section 6 (training for terrorism); sections 9 to 11 (offences involving radioactive devices or materials). This section applies to any ancillary offence (as defined in section 94 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008) in relation to an offence listed in subsection (2). This section also applies to an offence specified in Schedule 2 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (offences where terrorist connection to be considered) as to which— in England and Wales, the court dealing with the offence has determined, in accordance with section 30 of that Act, that the offence has a terrorist connection; in Scotland, it has been proved, in accordance with section 31 of that Act, that the offence has a terrorist connection. An order adding an offence to subsection (2) applies only in relation to offences committed after the order comes into force. In section 123 of that Act (orders and regulations)— in subsection (4) (instruments subject to affirmative resolution procedure), after paragraph (a) insert— section 23A(5); in subsection (5), for “paragraph (b)” substitute “ paragraph (aa) or (b) ”. After section 23A of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (inserted by section 35 above), insert— Before making an order under section 23 or 23A, a court must give an opportunity to be heard to any person, other than the convicted person, who claims to be the owner or otherwise interested in anything which can be forfeited under that section. In considering whether to make an order under section 23 or 23A in respect of any property, a court shall have regard to— the value of the property, and the likely financial and other effects on the convicted person of the making of the order (taken together with any other order that the court contemplates making). A court in Scotland must not make an order under section 23 or 23A except on the application of the prosecutor— in proceedings on indictment, when the prosecutor moves for sentence, and in summary proceedings, before the court sentences the accused; and for the purposes of any appeal or review, an order under either of those sections made by a court in Scotland is a sentence. Schedule 4 makes further provision in relation to forfeiture orders under section 23 or 23A. In Part 1 of Schedule 4 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (forfeiture orders: England and Wales), after paragraph 4 insert— Where a court makes a forfeiture order in a case where— the offender has been convicted of an offence that has resulted in a person suffering personal injury, loss or damage, or any such offence is taken into consideration by the court in determining sentence, the court may also order that an amount not exceeding a sum specified by the court is to be paid to that person out of the proceeds of the forfeiture. For this purpose the proceeds of the forfeiture means the aggregate amount of— any forfeited money, and the proceeds of the sale, disposal or realisation of any forfeited property, after deduction of the costs of the sale, disposal or realisation, reduced by the amount of any payment under paragraph 2(1)(d) or 3(1). The court may make an order under this paragraph only if it is satisfied that but for the inadequacy of the offender's means it would have made a compensation order under section 130 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 under which the offender would have been required to pay compensation of an amount not less than the specified amount. In Part 2 of that Schedule (forfeiture orders: Scotland), after paragraph 17 insert— reduced by the amount of any payment under paragraph 16(1)(c) or 17(2). The court may make an order under this paragraph only if it is satisfied that but for the inadequacy of the offender's means it would have made a compensation order under section 249 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 under which the offender would have been required to pay compensation of an amount not less than the specified amount. In Part 3 of that Schedule (forfeiture orders: Northern Ireland), after paragraph 32 insert— reduced by the amount of any payment under paragraph 30(1)(d) or 31(1). The court may make an order under this paragraph only if it is satisfied that but for the inadequacy of the offender's means it would have made a compensation order under Article 14 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 1994 under which the offender would have been required to pay compensation of an amount not less than the specified amount. For section 120A of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (supplemental powers of the court in respect of forfeiture orders) substitute— A court by or before which a person is convicted of an offence under a provision mentioned in column 1 of the following table may order the forfeiture of any item mentioned in column 2 in relation to that offence. Before making an order under this section, a court must give an opportunity to be heard to any person, other than the convicted person, who claims to be the owner or otherwise interested in anything which can be forfeited under this section. An order under this section does not come into force until there is no further possibility of it being varied, or set aside, on appeal (disregarding any power of a court to grant leave to appeal out of time). Where a court makes an order under this section, it may also make such other provision as appears to it to be necessary for giving effect to the forfeiture, including, in particular, provision relating to the retention, handling, disposal or destruction of what is forfeited. Provision made by virtue of subsection (4) may be varied at any time by the court that made it. The power of forfeiture under this section is in addition to any power of forfeiture under section 23A. In section 7 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11), after subsection (6) insert— The power of forfeiture under this section is in addition to any power of forfeiture under section 23A of the Terrorism Act 2000. After section 11 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (terrorist threats relating to devices, materials or facilities) insert— A court by or before which a person is convicted of an offence under section 9 or 10 may order the forfeiture of any radioactive device or radioactive material, or any nuclear facility, made or used in committing the offence. A court by or before which a person is convicted of an offence under section 11 may order the forfeiture of any radioactive device or radioactive material, or any nuclear facility, which is the subject of— a demand under subsection (1) of that section, or a threat falling within subsection (3) of that section. Provision made by virtue of subsection (5) may be varied at any time by the court that made it. Schedule 3 contains amendments consequential on those made by sections 34 to 38. This Part imposes notification requirements on persons dealt with in respect of certain offences— sections 41 to 43 specify the offences to which this Part applies; sections 44 to 46 make provision as to the sentences or orders triggering the notification requirements; sections 47 to 52 contain the notification requirements; and section 53 makes provision as to the period for which the requirements apply. This Part also provides for— orders applying the notification requirements to persons dealt with outside the United Kingdom for corresponding foreign offences (see section 57 and Schedule 4), ... orders imposing restrictions on travel outside the United Kingdom on persons subject to the notification requirements (see section 58 and Schedule 5) , and warrants authorising entry and search of premises notified under this Part or where a person to whom the notification requirements apply resides or may be found. Schedule 6 provides for the application of this Part to service offences and related matters. This Part applies to— section 11 or 12 (offences relating to proscribed organisations), sections 15 to 18 (offences relating to terrorist property), section 38B (failure to disclose information about acts of terrorism), sections 56 to 61 (directing terrorism, possessing things and collecting information for the purposes of terrorism , eliciting information about members of armed forces etc, entering or remaining in a designated area and inciting terrorism outside the United Kingdom); an offence under section 113 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (use of noxious substances or things); an offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of section 17 of that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain offences committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism etc). an offence under section 23 of the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (breach of notice imposing terrorism prevention and investigation measures) dealt with on or after the day on which section 42 of the Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 comes into force; an offence under section 10(1) or (3) of the Counter-Terrorism and Security Act 2015 (breach of temporary exclusion order or related obligation) dealt with on or after that day. This Part also applies to any ancillary offence in relation to an offence listed in subsection (1). An order adding an offence applies only in relation to offences dealt with after the order comes into force. An order removing an offence has effect in relation to offences whenever dealt with, whether before or after the order comes into force. Where an offence is removed from the list, a person subject to the notification requirements by reason of that offence being listed (and who is not otherwise subject to those requirements) ceases to be subject to them when the order comes into force. an offence as to which a court has determined under section 69 of the Sentencing Code (sentences for offences with a terrorist connection: England and Wales) that the offence has a terrorist connection, an offence as to which a court has determined under section 30 (sentences for offences with a terrorist connection: ... ... Northern Ireland) that the offence has a terrorist connection, and an offence in relation to which section 31 applies (sentences for offences with terrorist connection: Scotland). A person to whom the notification requirements apply by virtue of such a determination as is mentioned in subsection (1)(za) or (a) may appeal against it to the same court, and subject to the same conditions, as an appeal against sentence. If the determination is set aside on appeal, the notification requirements are treated as never having applied to that person in respect of the offence. This Part applies to a person dealt with for an offence before the commencement of this Part only if— the offence is on the commencement of this Part within section 41(1) or (2) (offences to which this Part applies: terrorism offences), and immediately before the commencement of this Part the person— is imprisoned or detained in pursuance of the sentence passed or order made in respect of the offence, would be so imprisoned or detained but for being unlawfully at large, absent without leave, on temporary leave or leave of absence, or on bail pending an appeal, or is on licence, having served the custodial part of a sentence of imprisonment in respect of the offence. In relation to a person dealt with for an offence before the commencement of this Part— any reference in this Part to a sentence or order under a specified statutory provision includes a sentence or order under any corresponding earlier statutory provision; any reference in this Part to a person being or having been found to be under a disability and to have done the act charged against them in respect of an offence includes a reference to their being or having been found— unfit to be tried for the offence, insane so that their trial for the offence cannot or could not proceed, or unfit to be tried and to have done the act charged against them in respect of the offence. The notification requirements apply to a person who— is aged 16 or over at the time of being dealt with for an offence to which this Part applies, and is made subject in respect of the offence to a sentence or order within section 45 (sentences or orders triggering notification requirements). The notification requirements apply to a person who in England and Wales— has been convicted of an offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in respect of the offence to— imprisonment or custody for life, imprisonment or detention in a young offender institution for a term of 12 months or more, imprisonment or detention in a young offender institution for public protection under section 225 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44), detention for life or for a period of 12 months or more under section 91 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6) or section 250 of the Sentencing Code (offenders under 18 convicted of certain serious offences), a detention and training order for a term of 12 months or more under section 100 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 or under Chapter 2 of Part 10 of the Sentencing Code (offenders under age of 18), detention for public protection under section 226 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (serious offences committed by persons under 18), detention under section 226B of that Act or under section 254 of the Sentencing Code (extended sentence of detention for certain dangerous offenders aged under 18), detention under section 252A of the Sentencing Code (special sentence for terrorist offenders of particular concern aged under 18), or detention during Her Majesty's pleasure; or has been— convicted of an offence to which this Part applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more, found not guilty by reason of insanity of such an offence, or found to be under a disability and to have done the act charged against them in respect of such an offence, and made subject in respect of the offence to a hospital order. The notification requirements apply to a person who in Scotland— imprisonment or detention in a young offenders institution for life, imprisonment or detention in a young offenders institution for a term of 12 months or more, an order for lifelong restriction under section 210F of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46), detention without limit of time under section 205(2) of that Act (punishment for murder for offenders under 18), detention under section 205ZC(5) of that Act, or detention for a period of 12 months or more under section 208 of that Act (detention of children convicted on indictment); or acquitted of such an offence by reason of the special defence set out in section 51A of that Act (criminal responsibility of persons with mental disorder), or found, following an examination of facts under section 55 of that Act (examination of facts where person unfit for trial) in relation to such an offence, to have done the act or omission constituting the offence, The notification requirements apply to a person who in Northern Ireland— imprisonment for life, imprisonment or detention in a young offenders centre for a term of 12 months or more, an indeterminate custodial sentence under Article 13 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 (S.I. 2008/1216 (N.I. 1)), a serious terrorism sentence under Article 13A(6) of that Order (offenders under 21 convicted of certain serious terrorist or terrorism-related offences), an extended custodial sentence under Article 14(5) of that Order (offenders under 21 convicted of certain offences), a sentence under Article 15A(5) of that Order (offenders under 21 convicted of certain terrorist or terrorism-related offences), a juvenile justice centre order under Article 39 of the Criminal Justice (Children) (Northern Ireland) Order 1998 (S.I. 1998/1504 (N.I. 9)) for a period of 12 months or more, detention during the pleasure of the Minister in charge of the Department of Justice under Article 45(1) of that Order (punishment of certain grave crimes committed by a child), or detention under Article 45(2) of that Order for a period of 12 months or more (other serious offences committed by a child); or found to be unfit to be tried and to have done the act charged against them in respect of such an offence, The references in this section to an offence carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more— are to an offence carrying such a maximum term in the case of a person who has attained the age of 21 (18 in relation to England and Wales), and include an offence carrying in the case of such a person a maximum term of life imprisonment and an offence for which in the case of such a person the sentence is fixed by law as life imprisonment. In relation to any time before the coming into force of section 61 of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43) subsection (4)(a) above has effect with the omission of the words “(18 in relation to England and Wales)”. The Secretary of State may by order amend the provisions of section 45 referring to a specified term or period of imprisonment or detention. An order reducing a specified term or period has effect only in relation to persons dealt with after the order comes into force. Where an order increases a specified term or period— it has effect in relation to persons dealt with at any time, whether before or after the order comes into force, and a person who would not have been subject to the notification requirements if the order had been in force when the offence was dealt with (and who is not otherwise subject to those requirements) ceases to be subject to the requirements when the order comes into force. An order under this section is subject to affirmative resolution procedure. A person to whom the notification requirements apply must notify the following information to the police within the period of three days beginning with the day on which the person is dealt with in respect of the offence in question. The information required is— date of birth; national insurance number; name on the date on which the person was dealt with in respect of the offence (where the person used one or more other names on that date, each of those names); home address on that date; all contact details on that date; name on the date on which notification is made (where the person uses one or more other names on that date, each of those names); home address on the date on which notification is made; all contact details on the date on which notification is made; address of any other premises in the United Kingdom at which, at the time the notification is made, the person regularly resides or stays; identifying information of any motor vehicle of which the person is the registered keeper, or which the person has a right to use (whether routinely or on specific occasions or for specific purposes), on the date on which notification is made; the financial information specified in paragraph 1 of Schedule 3A; the information about identification documents specified in paragraph 2 of Schedule 3A; any prescribed information. In subsection (2) “prescribed” means prescribed by regulations made by the Secretary of State. Such regulations are subject to affirmative resolution procedure. In determining the period within which notification is to be made under this section, there shall be disregarded any time when the person is— remanded in or committed to custody by an order of a court, serving a sentence of imprisonment or detention, detained in a hospital, or detained under the Immigration Acts. This section does not apply to a person who— is subject to the notification requirements in respect of another offence (and does not cease to be so subject before the end of the period within which notification is to be made), and has complied with this section in respect of that offence. In the application of this section to a person dealt with for an offence before the commencement of this Part who, immediately before commencement— would be imprisoned or detained in respect of the offence but for being unlawfully at large, absent without leave, on temporary leave or leave of absence, or on bail pending an appeal, or is on licence, having served the custodial part of a sentence of imprisonment in respect of the offence, the reference in subsection (1) to the day on which the person is dealt with in respect of the offence shall be read as a reference to the commencement of this Part. A person to whom the notification requirements apply who uses a name that has not previously been notified to the police must notify the police of that name. If there is a change of the home address of a person to whom the notification requirements apply, the person must notify the police of the new home address. A person to whom the notification requirements apply who resides or stays at premises in the United Kingdom the address of which has previously not been notified to the police— for a period of 7 days, or for two or more periods, in any period of 12 months, that taken together amount to 7 days, must notify the police of the address of those premises. A person to whom the notification requirements apply who is released— from custody pursuant to an order of a court, from imprisonment or detention pursuant to a sentence of a court, from detention in a hospital, or from detention under the Immigration Acts, must notify the police of that fact. This does not apply if the person is at the same time required to notify the police under section 47 (initial notification). If there is a change in the contact details of a person to whom the notification requirements apply, the person must notify the police of the new contact details. If a person to whom the notification requirements apply ceases to use contact details which the person has previously notified under this Part, the person must notify the police of that fact. If a person to whom the notification requirements apply becomes the registered keeper of, or acquires a right to use, a motor vehicle the identifying information of which has not previously been notified to the police, the person must notify the police of the identifying information of that motor vehicle. If there is a change in the identifying information of a motor vehicle previously notified under this Part, the person must notify the police— that there has been a change, and of the new identifying information of the motor vehicle. If a person to whom the notification requirements apply ceases to be the registered keeper of a motor vehicle the identifying information of which the person has notified, or ceases to have the right to use such a motor vehicle, the person must notify the police that the person is no longer the registered keeper of the motor vehicle or no longer has the right to use it. A person who is required to notify information within section 47(2)(h) (prescribed information) must notify the police of the prescribed details of any prescribed changes in that information. In subsection (5) “prescribed” means prescribed by regulations made by the Secretary of State. Notification under this section must be made— in a case to which subsection (4C) applies, before the earlier of the following— the end of the period of three days beginning with the day on which the person becomes the registered keeper of the motor vehicle or acquires a right to use it, or the first occasion on which the person uses the motor vehicle by virtue of being its registered keeper or having a right to use it, in a case to which subsection (4D) applies, before the earlier of the following— the end of the period of three days beginning with the day on which the identifying information changes, or the first occasion on which the person uses the motor vehicle after the identifying information has changed, in any other case, before the end of the period of three days beginning with the day on which the event in question occurs (and, where subsection (3) applies, that is the day with which the period referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) (as the case may be) of subsection (3) ends). Where subsection (3) applies that is the day with which the period referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) (as the case may be) ends. References in this section to previous notification are to previous notification by the person under section 47 (initial notification), this section, section 48A (notification of changes: financial information and information about identification documents), section 49 (periodic re-notification) or section 56 (notification on return after absence from UK). Notification under this section must be accompanied by re-notification of the other information mentioned in section 47(2). If there is a change in any of the financial information (see paragraph 1 of Schedule 3A), or information about identification documents (see paragraph 2 of that Schedule), in relation to a person to whom the notification requirements apply, the person must notify the police of the change. For the purposes of subsection (1) there is a change in the financial information if— an account previously notified in accordance with this Part is closed; a payment card previously notified in accordance with this Part is no longer held by the person notified as holding it; an account is opened, or a payment card is obtained, which would have been required to be notified in accordance with section 47(2)(gb) if the account or card had been held at the time when notification was made under section 47(1); any other financial information previously notified in accordance with this Part is altered or becomes inaccurate. For the purposes of subsection (1) there is a change in the information about identification documents if— the person ceases to hold a passport or other document previously notified in accordance with this Part; the person obtains a passport or other document which would have been required to be notified in accordance with section 47(2)(gc) if it had been held at the time when notification was made under section 47(1). Where a change required to be notified under subsection (1) relates to opening a new account or obtaining a new payment card as mentioned in subsection (2)(c), the person must in notifying the change include all the information (so far as relevant) specified in paragraph 1(2) of Schedule 3A in respect of the new account or card. Where a change required to be notified under subsection (1) relates to the holding of a new passport or other document as mentioned in subsection (3)(b), the person must in notifying the change include all the information (so far as relevant) specified in paragraph 2 of Schedule 3A in relation to the new passport or other document. Notification under this section must be made before the end of the period of three days beginning with the day on which the event in question occurs. In determining the period within which notification is to be made under this section, any time when the person is— remanded in or committed to custody by any order of a court, detained under the Immigration Acts, is to be ignored. A person to whom the notification requirements apply must, within the applicable period after last notifying the police in accordance with— section 47 (initial notification), section 48 (notification of change : general), section 48A (notification of changes: financial information and information about identification documents), this section, or section 56 (notification on return after absence from UK), re-notify to the police the information mentioned in section 47(2). In this section the “applicable period” means— in the case of a person who has no sole or main residence in the United Kingdom, the period of one week, and in any other case, the period of one year. Subsection (1) does not apply if the applicable period ends at a time when the person is— In that case section 48(4) and (10) (duty to notify of release and to re-notify other information) apply when the person is released. This section applies to notification under— section 49 (periodic re-notification), or section 56 (notification on return after absence from UK). Notification must be made by the person— attending at a police station in the person's local police area, and making an oral notification to a police officer or to a person authorised for the purpose by the officer in charge of the station. A person making a notification under section 48 (notification of change) in relation to premises referred to in subsection (3) of that section may make the notification at a police station that would fall within subsection (2)(a) above if the address of those premises were the person's home address. The notification must be acknowledged. The acknowledgement must be in writing, and in such form as the Secretary of State may direct. The person making the notification must, if requested to do so by the police officer or person to whom the notification is made, allow the officer or person to— take the person's fingerprints, photograph any part of the person, or do both these things, for the purpose of verifying the person's identity. In the application of this section to Scotland, references to a police officer are to be read as references to a constable. For the purposes of section 50(2) (method of notification) a person's “local police area” means— the police area in which the person's home address is situated; in the absence of a home address, the police area in which the home address last notified is situated; in the absence of a home address and of any such notification, the police area in which the court of trial was situated. In subsection (1)(c) “the court of trial” means— the court by or before which the conviction or finding was made by virtue of which the notification requirements apply to the person, or if that conviction or finding was one substituted on an appeal or reference, the court by or before which the proceedings were taken from which the appeal or reference was brought. This section and section 50(2) apply in relation to Northern Ireland as if Northern Ireland were a police area. This section and section 50(2) apply in relation to Scotland as if Scotland were a police area. The Secretary of State may by regulations make provision requiring a person to whom the notification requirements apply who leaves the United Kingdom— to notify the police of their departure before they leave, and to notify the police of their return if they subsequently return to the United Kingdom. Notification of departure must disclose— the date on which the person intends to leave the United Kingdom; the country (or, if there is more than one, the first country) to which the person will travel; the person's point of arrival (determined in accordance with the regulations) in that country; any other information required by the regulations. Notification of return must disclose such information as is required by the regulations about the person's return to the United Kingdom. Notification under this section must be given in accordance with the regulations. The period for which the notification requirements apply is— 30 years in the case of a person who— is aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the offence, and receives in respect of the offence a sentence within subsection (2); 15 years in the case of a person who— receives in respect of the offence a sentence within subsection (3); 10 years in any other case. The sentences in respect of which a 30 year period applies are— in England and Wales— imprisonment or detention in a young offender institution for a term of 10 years or more, detention during Her Majesty's pleasure; in Scotland— imprisonment or detention in a young offenders institution for a term of 10 years or more, an order for lifelong restriction under section 210F of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46); in Northern Ireland— imprisonment for a term of 10 years or more, an extended custodial sentence for a term of 10 years or more under Article 14(5) of that Order (offenders under 21 convicted of certain offences), detention during the pleasure of the Minister in charge of the Department of Justice under Article 45(1) of the Criminal Justice (Children) (Northern Ireland) Order 1998 (S.I. 1998/1504 (N.I. 9)). The sentences in respect of which a 15 year period applies are— in England and Wales, imprisonment or detention in a young offender institution for a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years; in Scotland, imprisonment or detention in a young offenders institution for a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years; imprisonment for a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years, an extended custodial sentence for a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years under Article 14(5) of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 (S.I. 2008/1216 (N.I. 1)) (offenders under 21 convicted of certain offences). The period begins with the day on which the person is dealt with for the offence. If a person who is the subject of a finding within section 45(1)(b)(iii), (2)(b)(iii) or (3)(b)(iii) (finding of disability, etc) is subsequently tried for the offence, the period resulting from that finding ends— if the person is acquitted, at the conclusion of the trial; if the person is convicted, when the person is again dealt with in respect of the offence. For the purposes of determining the length of the period— a person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more offences to which this Part applies to consecutive terms of imprisonment is treated as if sentenced, in respect of each of the offences, to a term of imprisonment equal to the aggregate of the terms; and a person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more such offences to concurrent terms of imprisonment (X and Y) that overlap for a period (Z) is treated as if sentenced, in respect of each of the offences, to a term of imprisonment equal to X plus Y minus Z. In determining whether the period has expired, there shall be disregarded any period when the person was— A person commits an offence who— fails without reasonable excuse to comply with— section 48 (notification of changes : general), section 49 (periodic re-notification), section 50(6) (taking of fingerprints or photographs), any regulations made under section 52(1) (travel outside United Kingdom), or section 56 (notification on return after absence from UK); or notifies to the police in purported compliance with— any information that the person knows to be false. A person guilty of an offence under this section is liable— on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both; on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or a fine or both. In the application of this section in England and Wales, the reference in subsection (2)(a) to 12 months is to be read as a reference to the general limit in a magistrates’ court (or to 6 months in relation to an offence committed before 2 May 2022). In the application of subsection (2)(a)— in Northern Ireland, for “12 months” substitute “ 6 months ”. A person— commits an offence under subsection (1)(a) above on the day on which the person first fails without reasonable excuse to comply with— section 48 (notification of changes : general ), section 56 (notification on return after absence from UK), and continues to commit it throughout any period during which the failure continues. But a person must not be prosecuted under subsection (1) more than once in respect of the same failure. Proceedings for an offence under this section may be commenced in any court having jurisdiction in any place where the person charged with the offence resides or is found. If a person to whom the notification requirements apply is absent from the United Kingdom for any period the following provisions apply. During the period of absence the period for which the notification requirements apply continues to run. The period of absence does not affect the obligation under section 47 (initial notification). This is subject to subsection (4). Section 47 does not apply if— the period of absence begins before the end of the period within which notification must be made under that section, and the person's absence results from the person's removal from the United Kingdom. Sections 48 and 48A (notification of changes)— apply in relation to an event that occurs before the period of absence, but do not apply in relation to an event that occurs during the period of absence. Paragraph (a) is subject to subsection (6). Sections 48 and 48A do not apply in relation to an event that occurs before the period of absence if— Section 49 (periodic re-notification) does not apply if the applicable period referred to in subsection (1) of that section ends during the period of absence. Section 53(7) (disregard of period of custody etc) applies in relation to the period of absence as if it referred to any period when the person was— remanded in or committed to custody by an order of a court outside the United Kingdom, serving a sentence of imprisonment or detention imposed by such a court, detained in a hospital pursuant to an order of such a court that is equivalent to a hospital order, or subject to a form of detention outside the United Kingdom that is equivalent to detention under the Immigration Acts. References in this section and section 56 to a person's removal from the United Kingdom include— the person's removal from the United Kingdom in accordance with the Immigration Acts, the person's extradition from the United Kingdom, or the person's transfer from the United Kingdom to another country pursuant to a warrant under section 1 of the Repatriation of Prisoners Act 1984 (c. 47). This section applies if, before the end of the period for which the notification requirements apply, a person to whom the requirements apply returns to the United Kingdom after a period of absence and— the person was not required to make a notification under section 47 (initial notification), there has been a change to any of the information last notified to the police in accordance with— section 47, the period referred to in section 49(1) (period after which re-notification required) ended during the period of absence. The person must notify or (as the case may be) re-notify to the police the information mentioned in section 47(2) within the period of three days beginning with the day of return.

This section does not apply if— the person subsequently leaves the United Kingdom, the period of absence begins before the end of the period within which notification must be made under this section, and The obligation under this section does not affect any obligation to notify information under section 52(3) (regulations requiring notification of return etc). If on an application made by a senior police officer of the relevant force a justice is satisfied that the requirements in subsection (2) are met, the justice may issue a warrant authorising a constable of that force— to enter premises specified in the warrant for the purpose of assessing the risks posed by the person to whom the warrant relates; and to search the premises for that purpose. The requirements are— that the person to whom the warrant relates— is a person to whom the notification requirements apply, and is not a person to whom subsection (3) applies, that the address of each set of premises specified in the application is an address falling within subsection (4), that it is necessary for a constable to enter and search the premises for the purpose mentioned in subsection (1)(a), and that on at least two occasions a constable has sought entry to the premises in order to search them for that purpose and has been unable to gain entry for that purpose. This subsection applies to a person who is— remanded in or committed to custody by order of a court, serving a sentence of imprisonment or a term of service detention, outside the United Kingdom. An address falls within this subsection if— it is the address which was last notified in accordance with the notification requirements by the person to whom the warrant relates, or there are reasonable grounds to believe that the person to whom the warrant relates resides there or may regularly be found there. A warrant issued under this section must specify each set of premises to which it relates. The warrant may authorise the constable executing it to use reasonable force if necessary to enter and search the premises. The warrant may authorise entry to and search of premises on more than one occasion if, on the application, the justice is satisfied that it is necessary to authorise multiple entries in order to achieve the purpose mentioned in subsection (1)(a). Where a warrant issued under this section authorises multiple entries, the number of entries authorised may be unlimited or limited to a maximum. “justice” means— in the application of this section to England and Wales, a justice of the peace; in the application of this section to Northern Ireland, a lay magistrate; in the application of this section to Scotland, a sheriff or summary sheriff; “the relevant force” means— in relation to premises in England or Wales, the police force maintained for the police area in which the premises in respect of which the application is made or the warrant is issued are situated; in relation to premises in Northern Ireland, the Police Service of Northern Ireland; in relation to premises in Scotland, the Police Service of Scotland; “senior police officer” means a constable of the rank of superintendent or above; “sentence of imprisonment” includes any form of custodial sentence (apart from service detention); “service detention” has the meaning given by section 374 of the Armed Forces Act 2006. Schedule 4 makes provision for notification orders applying the notification requirements of this Part to persons who have been dealt with outside the United Kingdom in respect of a corresponding foreign offence. Schedule 5 makes provision for foreign travel restriction orders prohibiting persons to whom the notification requirements apply from— travelling to a country outside the United Kingdom named or described in the order, travelling to any country outside the United Kingdom other than a country named or described in the order, or travelling to any country outside the United Kingdom. Schedule 6 makes provision for the application of this Part to service offences and related matters. In this Part— “contact details” means— telephone numbers (if any), and email addresses (if any); “country” includes a territory; “detained in a hospital” means detained in a hospital under— Part 3 of the Mental Health Act 1983 (c. 20), Part 6 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46) or the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 (asp 13), or Part 3 of the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order (S.I. 1986/595 (N.I. 4)); “home address” means, in relation to a person— the address of the person's sole or main residence in the United Kingdom, or where the person has no such residence, the address or location of a place in the United Kingdom where the person can regularly be found and, if there is more than one such place, such one of those places as the person may select; “hospital order” means— a hospital order within the meaning of the Mental Health Act 1983, an order under Part 6 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995, or a hospital order within the meaning of the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order 1986 (S.I. 1986/595 (N.I. 4)); “identifying information”, in relation to a motor vehicle, means— the registration number of the vehicle, the make, model and colour of the vehicle, and the location where the vehicle is normally kept when not in use; “motor vehicle” means a mechanically propelled vehicle intended or adapted for use on roads; “passport” means— a United Kingdom passport within the meaning of the Immigration Act 1971 (c. 77), or a passport issued by or on behalf of the authorities of a country outside the United Kingdom or by or on behalf of an international organisation, and includes any document that can be used (in some or all circumstances) instead of a passport; “payment card” means a credit card, a charge card, a prepaid card or a debit card; “photograph” includes any process by means of which an image may be produced; “registered keeper”, in relation to a motor vehicle, means the person in whose name the vehicle is registered under the Vehicle Excise and Registration Act 1994; “release” from imprisonment or detention includes release on licence but not temporary release. References in this Part to a person being dealt with for or in respect of an offence are to their being sentenced, or made subject to a hospital order, in respect of the offence. References in this Part to an offence being dealt with are to a person being dealt with in respect of the offence. Subject to the following provisions of this section, references in this Part to the time at which a person is dealt with for an offence are to the time at which they are first dealt with— in England and Wales, by a magistrates' court or the Crown Court; in Scotland, by a sheriff or by the High Court of Justiciary; in Northern Ireland, by the county court. This is referred to below as “the original decision”. Where the original decision is varied (on appeal or otherwise), then— if the result is that the conditions for application of the notification requirements to a person in respect of an offence cease to be met (and paragraph (c) below does not apply), the notification requirements are treated as never having applied to that person in respect of that offence; if the result is that the conditions for application of the notification requirements to a person in respect of an offence are met where they were not previously met (and paragraph (c) below does not apply)— the person is treated as dealt with for the offence when the variation takes place, and the notification requirements apply accordingly; if— a conviction of, or finding in relation to, a different offence is substituted, and the conditions for application of the notification requirements were met in respect of the original offence and are also met in respect of the substituted offence, the person is treated as if they had been dealt with for the substituted offence at the time of the original decision; if the sentence is varied so as to become one by virtue of which the notification requirements would apply for a different period, the period for which those requirements apply shall be determined as if the sentence as varied had been imposed at the time of the original decision; in any other case, the variation is disregarded. For the purposes of— section 41(5) (effect of order adding offence to list of terrorism offences), section 44(a) or paragraph 4(a) of Schedule 6 (persons subject to notification requirements: age when dealt with for offence), section 46(2) or paragraph 6(2) of Schedule 6 (effect of order reducing term or period triggering notification requirements), section 53(5)(b) or paragraph 7(5)(b) of Schedule 6 (period for which notification requirements apply: ending of period resulting from finding of disability etc where person subsequently tried), and paragraph 2(3) of Schedule 5 (conditions for making foreign travel restriction order: behaviour since offence dealt with), a person is treated as dealt with at the time of the original decision and any subsequent variation of the decision is disregarded. section 43(1) and (2) or paragraph 3(1) and (2) of Schedule 6 (application of Part to offences dealt with before commencement), and paragraph 2(4) of Schedule 5 (conditions for making foreign travel restriction order where offence dealt with before commencement), a person is dealt with for an offence before the commencement of this Part if the time of the original decision falls before the commencement of this Part. Where in such a case subsection (3) above applies for the purposes of any provision of this Part, that subsection has effect as if the provisions of this Part had been in force at all material times. In section 47(6) (adaptation of initial notification requirements in case of offence dealt with before commencement)— the reference in the opening words to an offence dealt with before the commencement of this Part is to an offence where the time of the original decision falls before the commencement of this Part, and the reference in the closing words to when the offence is dealt with has the same meaning as in subsection (1) of that section. References in this section to the variation of a decision include any proceedings by which the decision is altered, set aside or quashed, or in which a further decision is come to following the setting aside or quashing of the decision. Schedule 7 makes provision conferring powers on the Treasury to act against terrorist financing, money laundering and certain other activities. This section applies to any decision of the Treasury in connection with the exercise of any of their functions under— the UN terrorism orders, the Libya (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011(S.I. 2011/605), the Afghanistan (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/1893), the ISIL (Da’esh) and Al-Qaida (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/2742 as renamed by S.I. 2016/937), the Iran (European Union Financial Sanctions) Regulations 2016 (S.I 2016/36), Part 2 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (freezing orders), or Schedule 7 to this Act (terrorist financing, money laundering and certain other activities: financial restrictions). Any person affected by the decision may apply to the High Court or, in Scotland, the Court of Session to set aside the decision. In determining whether the decision should be set aside the court shall apply the principles applicable on an application for judicial review. If the court decides that a decision should be set aside it may make any such order, or give any such relief, as may be made or given in proceedings for judicial review. Without prejudice to the generality of subsection (4), if the court sets aside a decision of the Treasury— to give a direction under any of the UN terrorism orders, to make a freezing order under Part 2 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24), or to give a direction or make an order under Schedule 7 to this Act, the court must quash the relevant direction or order. This section applies whether the decision of the Treasury was made before or after the commencement of this section. After the commencement of this section an application to set aside a decision of the Treasury to which this section applies must be made under this section. This section does not apply to any decision of the Treasury to make an order under paragraph 8 or 28(6) of Schedule 7 to this Act. For the purposes of section 63 the UN terrorism orders are— the Al-Qa'ida and Taliban (United Nations Measures) Order 2002 (S.I. 2002/111); the Al-Qaida and Taliban (United Nations Measures) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/2952). The Treasury may by order amend subsection (1) by— adding other Orders in Council made under section 1 of the United Nations Act 1946 (c. 45), providing that a reference to a specified Order in Council is to that order as amended by a further Order in Council (made after the passing of this Act), or removing an Order in Council. An order under subsection (2) is subject to negative resolution procedure. In this Chapter “financial restrictions proceedings” means proceedings in the High Court or the Court of Session on an application under section 63 or on a claim arising from any matter to which such an application relates. The following provisions apply to rules of court relating to— financial restrictions proceedings, or proceedings on an appeal relating to financial restrictions proceedings. A person making rules of court must have regard to— the need to secure that the decisions that are the subject of the proceedings are properly reviewed; and the need to secure that disclosures of information are not made where they would be contrary to the public interest. Rules of court may make provision— about the mode of proof and about evidence in the proceedings; enabling or requiring the proceedings to be determined without a hearing; and about legal representation in the proceedings. enabling the proceedings to take place without full particulars of the reasons for the decisions to which the proceedings relate being given to a party to the proceedings (or to any legal representative of that party); enabling the court to conduct proceedings in the absence of any person, including a party to the proceedings (or any legal representative of that party); about the functions of a person appointed as a special advocate; enabling the court to give a party to the proceedings a summary of evidence taken in the party's absence. references to a party to the proceedings do not include the Treasury; references to a party's legal representative do not include a person appointed as a special advocate. Nothing in this section shall be read as restricting the power to make rules of court or the matters to be taken into account when doing so. Rules of court must secure that the Treasury are required to disclose— material on which they rely, material which adversely affects their case, and material which supports the case of a party to the proceedings. This is subject to the following provisions of this section. Rules of court must secure— that the Treasury have the opportunity to make an application to the court for permission not to disclose material otherwise than to— the court, and any person appointed as a special advocate; that such an application is always considered in the absence of every party to the proceedings (and every party's legal representative); that the court is required to give permission for material not to be disclosed if it considers that the disclosure of the material would be contrary to the public interest; that, if permission is given by the court not to disclose material, it must consider requiring the Treasury to provide a summary of the material to every party to the proceedings (and every party's legal representative); that the court is required to ensure that such a summary does not contain material the disclosure of which would be contrary to the public interest. Rules of court must secure that in cases where the Treasury— do not receive the court's permission to withhold material, but elect not to disclose it, or are required to provide a party to the proceedings with a summary of material that is withheld, but elect not to provide the summary, provision to the following effect applies. The court must be authorised— if it considers that the material or anything that is required to be summarised might adversely affect the Treasury's case or support the case of a party to the proceedings, to direct that the Treasury shall not rely on such points in their case, or shall make such concessions or take such other steps, as the court may specify, or in any other case, to ensure that the Treasury do not rely on the material or (as the case may be) on that which is required to be summarised. Nothing in this section, or in rules of court made under it, is to be read as requiring the court to act in a manner inconsistent with Article 6 of the Human Rights Convention. references to a party's legal representative do not include a person appointed as a special advocate; and “the Human Rights Convention” means the Convention within the meaning of the Human Rights Act 1998 (c. 42) (see section 21(1) of that Act). The relevant law officer may appoint a person to represent the interests of a party to— proceedings on an appeal, or further appeal, relating to financial restrictions proceedings, in any of those proceedings from which the party (and any legal representative of the party) is excluded. This is referred to in this Chapter as appointment as “a special advocate”. A person appointed as a special advocate is not responsible to the party to the proceedings whose interests the person is appointed to represent. The relevant law officer is— in relation to financial restrictions proceedings in England and Wales, or on an appeal or further appeal relating to such proceedings, the Attorney General; in relation to financial restrictions proceedings in Scotland, or on an appeal or further appeal relating to such proceedings, the Advocate General for Scotland; in relation to financial restrictions proceedings in Northern Ireland, or on an appeal or further appeal relating to such proceedings, the Advocate General for Northern Ireland. A person may be appointed as a special advocate only if— in the case of an appointment by the Attorney General, the person has a general legal qualification for the purposes of section 71 of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 (c. 41); in the case of an appointment by the Advocate General for Scotland, the person is an advocate or a solicitor who has rights of audience in the Court of Session or the High Court of Justiciary by virtue of section 25A of the Solicitors (Scotland) Act 1980 (c. 46); in the case of an appointment by the Advocate General for Northern Ireland, the person is a member of the Bar of Northern Ireland. Until the coming into force of section 27 of the Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26), references in this section to the Advocate General for Northern Ireland are to be read as references to the Attorney General for Northern Ireland. The coming into force of that section does not affect any appointment of a person as a special advocate made by the Attorney General for Northern Ireland before that time. In paragraph 11 of Schedule 3 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (Treasury's duty to give reason why person is specified in freezing order), make the existing provision sub-paragraph (1) and after it insert— Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply if, or to the extent that, particulars of the reason would not be required to be disclosed to the applicant in proceedings to set aside the freezing order. In paragraph 2 of Schedule 1 to the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54) (business allocated to the Queen's Bench Division), after sub-paragraph (ba) insert— all financial restrictions proceedings within the meaning of Chapter 2 of Part 6 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (see section 65 of that Act); The first time after the passing of this Act that rules of court are made in exercise of the powers conferred by this Chapter— in relation to proceedings in England and Wales, or in relation to proceedings in Northern Ireland, they may be made by the Lord Chancellor instead of by the person who would otherwise make them. Before making rules of court under this section, the Lord Chancellor must consult— in relation to rules applicable to proceedings in England and Wales, the Lord Chief Justice of England and Wales; in relation to rules applicable to proceedings in Northern Ireland, the Lord Chief Justice of Northern Ireland. The Lord Chancellor is not required to undertake any other consultation before making the rules. The requirements of subsection (2)(a) and (b) may be satisfied by consultation that took place wholly or partly before the passing of this Act. Rules of court made by the Lord Chancellor under this section— must be laid before Parliament, and if not approved by a resolution of each House before the end of 40 days beginning with the day on which they were made, cease to have effect at the end of that period. In reckoning the period of 40 days no account shall be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than four days. If rules cease to have effect in accordance with subsection (4)— that does not affect anything previously done in reliance on the rules; and subsection (1) applies as if the rules had not been made. The following provisions do not apply to rules of court made by the Lord Chancellor under this section— section 3(6) of the Civil Procedure Act 1997 (c. 12) (Parliamentary procedure for civil procedure rules); section 56 of the Judicature (Northern Ireland) Act 1978 (c. 23) (statutory rules procedure). Until section 85 of the Courts Act 2003 (c. 39) (process for making civil procedure rules) comes into force, in paragraph (a) above for “section 3(6)” substitute “ section 3(2) ”. In this Chapter— “financial restrictions proceedings” has the meaning given by section 65; “rules of court” means rules for regulating the practice and procedure to be followed in the High Court or the Court of Appeal or in the Court of Session; “special advocate” means a person appointed under section 68. In the provisions listed below (which define “terrorism”, or make similar provision, and require that the use or threat of action is made for the purpose of advancing a political, religious or ideological cause), after “religious” insert “ , racial ”. The provisions are— section 1(1)(c) of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11), section 113A(2) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24), Article 4(1)(c) of the Anti-terrorism (Financial and Other Measures) (Overseas Territories) Order 2002 (S.I. 2002/1822), Article 2(1)(a)(iii) of the Terrorism (United Nations Measures) (Overseas Territories) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3366), Article 3(1) of the Terrorism (United Nations Measures) (Isle of Man) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3364), Article 3(1) of the Terrorism (United Nations Measures) (Channel Islands) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3363). After section 58 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (collection of information) insert— elicits or attempts to elicit information about an individual who is or has been— a member of Her Majesty's forces, a member of any of the intelligence services, or a constable, which is of a kind likely to be useful to a person committing or preparing an act of terrorism, or publishes or communicates any such information. It is a defence for a person charged with an offence under this section to prove that they had a reasonable excuse for their action. on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or to a fine, or to both; on summary conviction— in England and Wales or Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or to both; in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or to both. In this section “the intelligence services” means the Security Service, the Secret Intelligence Service and GCHQ (within the meaning of section 3 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c. 13)). Schedule 8A to this Act contains supplementary provisions relating to the offence under this section. In the application of section 58A in England and Wales in relation to an offence committed before 2 May 2022 the reference in subsection (3)(b)(i) to 12 months is to be read as a reference to 6 months. In section 118 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (defences), in subsection (5)(a) after “58,” insert “ 58A, ”. After Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 insert the Schedule set out in Schedule 8 to this Act. Part 3 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (terrorist property) is amended as follows. In section 19(1) (duty to disclose belief or suspicion that offence committed), in paragraph (b) for “comes to his attention in the course of a trade, profession, business or employment” substitute— comes to his attention— in the course of a trade, profession or business, or in the course of his employment (whether or not in the course of a trade, profession or business). After section 22 insert— In sections 19 to 21B— “employment” means any employment (whether paid or unpaid) and includes— work under a contract for services or as an office-holder, work experience provided pursuant to a training course or programme or in the course of training for employment, and voluntary work; “employer” has a corresponding meaning. So far as the amendment in subsection (3) above extends any provision of sections 19 to 21B of the Terrorism Act 2000 involving belief or suspicion to cases to which that provision did not previously apply, that provision applies where the belief or suspicion is held after subsection (3) above comes into force even if based on information that came to the person's attention before that subsection was in force. In any such case sections 19(2), 21(3) and 21A(4) of that Act (duty to make disclosure as soon as is reasonably practicable) are to be read as requiring the person to act as soon as is reasonably practicable after subsection (3) above comes into force. In paragraph 9 of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (direction that detained person may consult solicitor only within sight and hearing of qualified officer), for sub-paragraph (3) (grounds on which direction may be given) substitute— A direction under this paragraph may be given only if the officer giving it has reasonable grounds for believing— that, unless the direction is given, the exercise of the right by the detained person will have any of the consequences specified in paragraph 8(4), or that the detained person has benefited from his criminal conduct and that, unless the direction is given, the exercise of the right by the detained person will hinder the recovery of the value of the property constituting the benefit. In paragraph 29(4) of that Schedule (meaning of “judicial authority”), in paragraphs (a) and (c) omit “after consulting the Lord Chancellor”. Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (forfeiture of terrorist cash) is amended as follows. In paragraph 3 (detention of seized cash), after sub-paragraph (1) (which specifies the period for which cash seized may initially be detained) insert— In determining the period of 48 hours specified in sub-paragraph (1) there shall be disregarded— any Saturday or Sunday; Christmas Day; Good Friday; any day that is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in the part of the United Kingdom in which the cash is seized; any day prescribed under section 8(2) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 as a court holiday in the sheriff court district in which the cash is seized. In paragraphs 4(1) and 10(2) (which refer to the period specified in paragraph 3(1)), after “48 hours” insert “ (determined in accordance with paragraph 3(1A)) ”. The amendments in this section apply in relation to cash seized after this section comes into force. In Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (forfeiture of terrorist cash), for paragraph 7 (appeal against forfeiture) substitute— A party to proceedings for an order under paragraph 6 (“a forfeiture order”) who is aggrieved by a forfeiture order made in the proceedings or by the decision of the court or sheriff not to make a forfeiture order may appeal— in England and Wales, to the Crown Court; in Scotland, to the sheriff principal; in Northern Ireland, to a county court. The appeal must be brought before the end of the period of 30 days beginning with the date on which the order is made or, as the case may be, the decision is given. This is subject to paragraph 7A (extended time for appealing in certain cases of deproscription). The court or sheriff principal hearing the appeal may make any order that appears to the court or sheriff principal to be appropriate. If an appeal against a forfeiture order is upheld, the court or sheriff principal may order the release of the cash. This paragraph applies where— a successful application for a forfeiture order relies (wholly or partly) on the fact that an organisation is proscribed, an application under section 4 of the Terrorism Act 2000 for a deproscription order in respect of the organisation is refused by the Secretary of State, the forfeited cash is seized under this Schedule on or after the date of the refusal of that application, an appeal against that refusal is allowed under section 5 of that Act, a deproscription order is made accordingly, and if the order is made in reliance on section 123(5) of that Act, a resolution is passed by each House of Parliament under section 123(5)(b). Where this paragraph applies, an appeal under paragraph 7 above against the forfeiture order may be brought at any time before the end of the period of 30 days beginning with the date on which the deproscription order comes into force. In this paragraph a “deproscription order” means an order under section 3(3)(b) or (8) of the Terrorism Act 2000. This amendment applies where the order or decision of the court or sheriff against which the appeal is brought is made or given after this section comes into force. This section applies where the Secretary of State considers— that the provision of extra police services at a gas facility in England or Wales is necessary because of a risk of loss of or disruption to the supply of gas connected with it, and that the loss or disruption would have a serious impact on the United Kingdom or any part of it. In this section “extra police services” means— the services of the Ministry of Defence Police provided under an agreement with the Secretary of State for Defence under section 2(2)(e) of the Ministry of Defence Police Act 1987 (c. 4), the services of the Civil Nuclear Constabulary provided under section 55A of the Energy Act 2004, or special police services provided under section 25(1) of the Police Act 1996 (c. 16) at the Secretary of State's request. The Secretary of State may require a designated gas transporter who has an interest in the gas facility to pay all or part of the costs incurred by the Secretary of State in respect of the provision of extra police services in or around the facility. In this section “gas facility” means a facility used for the purposes of, or for purposes connected with, the transportation of gas from a gas shipper to a gas transporter or gas supplier. The reference in subsection (3) to a designated gas transporter having an interest in a gas facility includes the facility being used for, or for purposes connected with, the supply of gas to the transporter. that the provision of extra police services at a gas facility in Scotland is necessary because of a risk of loss of or disruption to the supply of gas connected with it, and police services (within the meaning of section 86(9) of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012) provided under an arrangement under section 86 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 in respect of the gas facility entered into at the request of the Secretary of State by— the occupier of, or of part of, the facility, and the chief constable of the Police Service of Scotland. The Secretary of State may require a designated gas transporter who has an interest in the gas facility to pay all or part of the costs incurred by the Secretary of State in respect of the provision of extra police services within subsection (2)(a) in or around the facility. The Secretary of State, if so requested by the occupier, must require a designated gas transporter who has an interest in the gas facility to pay the reasonable costs incurred by the occupier under any such arrangements as are mentioned in subsection (2)(b). References in this section to a designated gas transporter having an interest in a gas facility include the facility being used for, or for purposes connected with, the supply of gas to the transporter. The Secretary of State may by order designate a person who is the holder of a licence under section 7 of the Gas Act 1986 (c. 44) (licensing of gas transporters) as a designated gas transporter for the purposes of sections 85 to 90. The order may provide for a person to be designated only in such capacity as may be specified in the order. An order under this section is subject to negative resolution procedure. The Secretary of State may determine— the amount of the costs to be paid by a designated gas transporter under section 85 or 86, the manner in which and the times at which those costs are to be paid, and the person or persons to whom they are to be paid. An occupier who incurs costs under an arrangement under section 86 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 that are required to be paid by a designated gas transporter under section 86 may recover them directly from the designated gas transporter. A designated gas transporter may, in determining its charges for conveying gas through pipes, take into account— any payments made by the designated gas transporter under section 85 or 86, and the reasonable costs incurred by it as party to an arrangement under section 86 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 entered into at the Secretary of State's request. This applies despite anything in the conditions of the designated gas transporter's licence under section 7 of the Gas Act 1986 (c. 44) that prevents the transporter from recovering such payments or costs. The Secretary of State may direct the Gas and Electricity Markets Authority (“the Authority”)— to treat the payments or costs as costs of a kind specified by the Secretary of State for the purposes of the determination by the designated gas transporter of the transporter's charges, or to allow the designated gas transporter to take into account payments made or costs incurred in or in relation to a period so specified in determining the transporter's charges for a period so specified. The Secretary of State must consult the designated gas transporter and the Authority before giving a direction under this section. The Secretary of State must consult a designated gas transporter and the Authority— before the first time the Secretary of State requires the designated gas transporter to pay any costs under section 85 or 86, before the first time the Secretary of State requires the designated gas transporter to pay such costs in respect of a particular gas facility, and where extra police services were previously provided at a particular gas facility, before the first time the Secretary of State requires the designated gas transporter to pay such costs as the result of such services being provided on a subsequent occasion. The Secretary of State is not required— to take into account representations made after the end of the period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the person making the representations was consulted under subsection (1); to consult anyone else before requiring a designated gas transporter to pay costs under section 85 or 86. Sections 4AA to 4A of the Gas Act 1986 (c. 44) (principal objective and general duties of the Secretary of State and the Authority) do not apply in relation to anything done or omitted by the Secretary of State or the Authority in the exercise of functions under sections 85 to 89. Expressions used in those sections that are defined in Part 1 of the Gas Act 1986 have the same meaning as in that Part. Sections 85 to 89 apply in relation to costs incurred in the period— beginning with 16th January 2007, and ending with the day before those sections come into force, as they apply in relation to costs incurred on or after that day. In the following provisions for “Attorney General for Northern Ireland”, wherever occurring, substitute “ Advocate General for Northern Ireland ”. section 6(2)(c) of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (c. 68) (appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the Special Immigration Appeals Commission); rule 9(1) of the Northern Ireland Act Tribunal (Procedure) Rules 1999 (S.I. 1999/2131) (appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the tribunal appointed under section 91 of the Northern Ireland Act 1998 (c. 47)); paragraph 7(2)(c) of Schedule 3 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the Proscribed Organisations Appeal Commission); paragraph 6(2)(c) of Schedule 6 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the Pathogens Access Appeal Commission). These amendments come into force when section 27 of the Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26) comes into force. In this Act “terrorism” has the same meaning as in the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (see section 1 of that Act). For the purposes of this Act an offence has a terrorist connection if the offence— is, or takes place in the course of, an act of terrorism, or is committed for the purposes of terrorism. In this Act “ancillary offence”, in relation to an offence, means any of the following— aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the commission of the offence (or, in Scotland, being art and part in the commission of the offence); an offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 (c. 27) (encouraging or assisting crime) in relation to the offence (or, in Scotland, inciting a person to commit the offence); attempting or conspiring to commit the offence. In subsection (1)(b) the reference to an offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 includes, in relation to times before the commencement of that Part, an offence of incitement under the law of England and Wales or Northern Ireland. In this Act “service court” means the Court Martial, the Service Civilian Court or the Court Martial Appeal Court. Until the commencement of the relevant provisions of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 52), the following is substituted for subsection (1)— In this Act “service court” means— a court-martial constituted under the Army Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 18), the Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19) or the Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c. 53); the Courts-Martial Appeal Court; or a Standing Civilian Court. In this Act “service offence” means an offence under— section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006, section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force Act 1955, or section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957. References in this Act to the “corresponding civil offence” in relation to a service offence are— in relation to an offence under section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006, to the corresponding offence under the law of England and Wales within the meaning of that section; in relation to an offence under section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force Act 1955, to the corresponding civil offence within the meaning of that Act; in relation to an offence under section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957, to the civil offence within the meaning of that section. Section 48 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 52) (supplementary provisions relating to ancillary service offences) applies for the purposes of subsection (4)(a) above as it applies for the purposes of the provisions of that Act referred to in subsection (3)(b) of that section. Orders and regulations under this Act must be made by statutory instrument. Orders or regulations under this Act may— make different provision for different cases or circumstances, include supplementary, incidental and consequential provision, and make transitional provision and savings. Any provision that may be made by regulations under this Act may be made by order; and any provision that may be made by order under this Act may be made by regulations. Where orders or regulations under this Act are subject to “affirmative resolution procedure” the order or regulations must not be made unless a draft of the statutory instrument containing them has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament. Where orders or regulations under this Act are subject to “negative resolution procedure” the statutory instrument containing the order or regulations shall be subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament. Provision that may be made by order or regulations under this Act for which no Parliamentary procedure is prescribed may be included in an instrument subject to negative or affirmative resolution procedure. Provision that may be made by order or regulations under this Act subject to negative resolution procedure may be included in an instrument subject to affirmative resolution procedure. There shall be paid out of money provided by Parliament— any expenses of the Secretary of State under this Act, and any increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable out of money so provided under any other Act. There shall be paid into the Consolidated Fund— any sums received by the Secretary of State under this Act, and any increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable into that Fund under any other Act. The enactments specified in Schedule 9, which include enactments that are spent, are repealed or revoked to the extent specified. The provisions of this Part, except section 99 and Schedule 9 (repeals and revocations), come into force on the day this Act is passed. Part 5 (terrorist financing and money laundering) and Part 6 (financial restrictions proceedings) come into force on the day after the day on which this Act is passed. Sections 85 to 90 (costs of policing at gas facilities) come into force at the end of the period of two months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed. Section 91 (appointment of special advocates in Northern Ireland) comes into force in accordance with subsection (3) of that section. The other provisions of this Act come into force on such day as may be appointed by order of the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may by order make such transitional provision and savings as appears necessary or expedient in connection with the commencement of any provision of this Act. Except as otherwise provided— an amendment or repeal by this Act has the same extent as the enactment amended or repealed; and any other provisions of this Act— extend to the whole of the United Kingdom, and do not extend to any country or territory outside the United Kingdom. Nothing in this section shall be read as restricting the application of any provision of this Act in relation to service courts or service offences. The short title of this Act is the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008. In section 19(2) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (disclosure of information held by revenue departments), omit paragraph (a). The Representation of the People (England and Wales) Regulations 2001 are amended as follows. In regulation 45E (supply of record of anonymous entries to the security services), omit paragraphs (3) and (4). In regulation 102(6) (supply of full register: general restrictions on use), for “regulations 103 to 109” substitute “ regulations 103 to 108 or 109 ”. After regulation 108 insert— This regulation applies to— the Security Service; the Government Communications Headquarters; the Secret Intelligence Service. For the purposes of regulation 102(1) above the relevant part of the documents listed in that provision is the whole of them. In regulation 109 (supply of full register etc to police force and other agencies and restrictions on use), omit— paragraph (1)(g) to (i); in paragraph (4)(a), the words preceding paragraph (i); paragraph (4)(b) and the word “and” immediately preceding it. In regulation 113 (sale of full register to government departments and other bodies)— in the closing words of paragraph (1), after “other than” insert “ a department to which regulation 108A applies or ”; in paragraph (3) for “regulation 109(1)(g) to (i),” substitute “ regulation 108A ”. In regulation 115(2) (offences) omit “45E(3),”. For regulation 118(8) (provision of copies of documents open to public inspection) substitute insert— The relevant registration officer shall, on request, supply free of charge copies of any documents open to public inspection— to each of the departments mentioned in regulation 108A; to a person who has inspected those documents and who is entitled to be supplied with a copy of the marked register or lists by virtue of being a person to whom regulation 109 applies. In regulation 119(3) for “regulation 118(8)” substitute “ regulation 118(8)(b) ”. The Representation of the People (Scotland) Regulations 2001 are amended as follows. In regulation 45D (supply of record of anonymous entries to the security services), omit paragraphs (3) and (4). In regulation 101(6) (supply of full register: general restrictions on use), for “regulations 102 to 108” substitute “ regulations 102 to 107 or 108 ”. After regulation 107 insert— For the purposes of regulation 101(1) above the relevant part of the documents listed in that provision is the whole of them. In regulation 108 (supply of full register etc to police force and other agencies and restrictions on use), omit— In regulation 112 (sale of full register to government departments and other bodies)— in the closing words of paragraph (1), after “other than” insert “ a department to which regulation 107A applies or ”; in paragraph (3) for “regulation 108(1)(g) to (i),” substitute “ regulation 107A ”. In regulation 115(2) (offences) omit “45D(3),”. For regulation 118(8) (provision of copies of documents open to public inspection) substitute— to each of the departments mentioned in regulation 107A; to a person who has inspected those documents and who is entitled to be supplied with a copy of the marked register or lists by virtue of being a person to whom regulation 108 applies. In the Immigration, Asylum and Nationality Act 2006, omit section 38 (disclosure of information for security purposes). In the Statistics and Registration Service Act 2007, omit— section 39(4)(g) (permitted disclosure of personal information: disclosure to an Intelligence Service); and in section 67 (general interpretation), the definition of “Intelligence Service”. An offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000— section 11 (membership of a proscribed organisation); section 12 (inviting or expressing support for a proscribed organisation); section 15 (fund-raising); section 16 (use of money or property for terrorist purposes); section 17 (involvement in terrorist funding arrangements); section 17A (insuring payments made in response to terrorist threats); section 18 (laundering of terrorist property); section 19 (failure to disclose professional belief or suspicion about terrorist offences);

section 21A (failure in regulated sectors to disclose knowledge or suspicion about terrorist offences); section 38B (failure to disclose information about acts of terrorism); section 39 (disclosure of information prejudicial to a terrorist investigation etc); section 56 (directing a terrorist organisation); section 57 (possession of article for terrorist purposes); section 58 (collection of information likely to be of use to a terrorist); section 58A (publishing information about members of the armed forces etc); section 58B (entering or remaining in a designated area); section 60 (inciting terrorism overseas: Northern Ireland); section 61 (inciting terrorism overseas: Scotland). An offence under section 113 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (use of noxious substance or thing to cause harm or intimidate). An offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2006— section 1 (encouragement of terrorism); section 8 (attendance at a place used for terrorist training); section 9 (making or possession of radioactive device or material); section 10 (misuse of radioactive device or material for terrorist purposes etc); section 11 (terrorist threats relating to radioactive devices etc). An offence under section 54 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (breach of police notification requirements etc). An offence under paragraph 15 of Schedule 5 to that Act (breach of foreign travel restriction order) of which a person is convicted on or after the day on which paragraph 4 of Schedule 27 to the Crime and Policing Act 2026 comes into force. An offence under section 23 of the Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (breach of notices imposing terrorism prevention and investigation measures). An offence under section 10 of the Counter-Terrorism and Security Act 2015 (breach of temporary exclusion order). An ancillary offence in relation to an offence specified in any of the preceding paragraphs of this Schedule. Murder. Manslaughter. Culpable homicide. Kidnapping. Abduction. Assault by explosive device under the law of Scotland. Assault to severe injury under the law of Scotland. Assault and poisoning under the law of Scotland. Poisoning under the law of Scotland. False imprisonment under the law of Northern Ireland. An offence under any of the following sections of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100)— section 4 (soliciting murder), section 18 (wounding with intent), section 23 (maliciously administering poison etc so as to endanger life or inflict grievous bodily harm), section 28 (causing bodily injury by explosives), section 29 (using explosives etc with intent to do grievous bodily harm), section 30 (placing explosives with intent to do bodily injury), section 64 (making or having gunpowder etc with intent to commit or enable any person to commit any felony mentioned in the Act). An offence under any of the following sections of the Explosive Substances Act 1883 (c. 3)— section 2 (causing explosion likely to endanger life or property), section 3 (attempt to cause explosion or making or keeping explosive with intent to endanger life or property), section 4 (making or possession of explosive under suspicious circumstances), section 5 (punishment of accessories). An offence under section 20 of the Theft Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 (c. 16 (N.I.)) (blackmail). An offence under section 1 of the Protection of the Person and Property Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 (c. 29 (N.I.)) (intimidation). An offence under section 1 of the Biological Weapons Act 1974 (c. 6) (restriction on development etc of certain biological agents and toxins and of biological weapons). An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982 (c. 28) (hostage-taking). An offence under any of the following sections of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (c. 36)— section 1 (hijacking), section 2 (destroying, damaging or endangering safety of aircraft), section 3 (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safety of aircraft), section 4 (offences in relation to certain dangerous articles), section 6(2) (inducing or assisting commission of offence under section 1, 2 or 3 outside the United Kingdom). An offence under any of the following sections of the Nuclear Material (Offences) Act 1983 (c. 18)— section 1B (offences relating to damage to the environment), section 1C (offences of importing or exporting etc nuclear materials: extended jurisdiction), section 2 (offences involving preparatory acts and threats).... An offence under any of the following sections of the Aviation and Maritime Security Act 1990 (c. 31)— section 1 (endangering safety at aerodromes), section 9 (hijacking of ships), section 10 (seizing or exercising control of fixed platforms), section 11 (destroying ships or fixed platforms or endangering their safety), section 14(4) (inducing or assisting the commission of an offence outside the United Kingdom), so far as relating to an offence under section 9 or 11 of that Act. An offence under Part 2 of the Channel Tunnel (Security) Order 1994 (S.I. 1994/570) (offences against the safety of channel tunnel trains and the tunnel system). An offence under any of the following sections of the Chemical Weapons Act 1996 (c. 6)— section 2 (use etc of chemical weapons), section 11 (premises or equipment for producing chemical weapons). An offence under Article 6 of the Protection from Harassment (Northern Ireland) Order 1997 (S.I. 1997/1180 (N.I. 9)) (putting people in fear of violence). An offence under any of the following sections of the Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24)— section 47 (use etc of nuclear weapons), section 114 (hoaxes involving noxious substances or things). An offence under any of the following paragraphs of Schedule 4 to the Space Industry Act 2018— paragraph 1 (hijacking of spacecraft), paragraph 2 (destroying, damaging or endangering safety of spacecraft), paragraph 3 (other acts endangering or likely to endanger safety of spacecraft), paragraph 4 (endangering safety at spaceports), paragraph 5 (offences in relation to certain dangerous articles). An offence under any of the following provisions of the Firearms (Northern Ireland) Order 2004 (S.I. 2004/702 (N.I. 3))— Article 3(1) (unauthorised possession etc of firearm), Article 3(2) (unauthorised possession etc of ammunition), Article 58(1) (possession of firearm with intent to endanger life etc), Article 58(2) (possession of firearm with intent to cause person to believe that unlawful violence will be used etc), Article 60 (carrying a firearm with criminal intent), Article 61 (carrying or discharging a firearm in a public place), Article 64 (possession of firearm or ammunition in suspicious circumstances). Any ancillary offence in relation to an offence specified in this Schedule. In Article 5(3) of the Proceeds of Crime (Northern Ireland) Order 1996, after “section 23” insert “ or 23A ”. In section 54 of the Terrorism Act 2000, omit subsections (7) to (9). In section 58 of that Act, omit subsections (5) to (7). In section 119(1) of that Act for “sections 15 to 23” substitute “ sections 15 to 23A ”. Schedule 4 to that Act is amended as follows. In paragraph 1— in the definition of “forfeiture order” after “section 23” insert “ or 23A ”; after the definition of “forfeited property” insert— “relevant offence” means— an offence under any of sections 15 to 18, an offence to which section 23A applies, or in relation to a restraint order, any offence specified in Schedule 2 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (offences where terrorist connection to be considered). In paragraph 2(1)(d) for “section 23(7)” substitute “ section 23B(1) ”. In paragraph 4(2)(c) for “section 23(7)” substitute “ section 23B(1) ”. In paragraph 5(1)(a) and (2)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ a relevant offence ”. In paragraph 6(4)(a) and (b) for “offences under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ relevant offences ”. Omit the heading before paragraph 9. In paragraph 9(2)— in the opening words, for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ a relevant offence ”; in paragraphs (a), (b) and (c), for “an offence under any of those sections” substitute “ a relevant offence ”. In paragraph 10(1)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ a relevant offence ”. In paragraph 12 after “section 23”, in each place where it occurs, insert “ or 23A ”. In paragraph 15— In paragraph 16(1)(c) and (4)(c) for “section 23(7)” substitute “ section 23B(1) ”. In paragraph 18(1)(a) and (2)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ a relevant offence ”. In paragraph 19(3A)(a) and (b) for “offences under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ relevant offences ”. Omit the heading before paragraph 23. In paragraph 23(2)— in the opening words for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ a relevant offence ”; in paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) for “an offence under any of those sections” substitute “ a relevant offence ”. In paragraph 24(1)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ a relevant offence ”. In paragraph 26 after “section 23”, in each place where it occurs, insert “ or 23A ”. In paragraph 29— an offence under any of sections 15 to 18, or an offence to which section 23A applies. In paragraph 30(1)(d) for “section 23(7)” substitute “ section 23B(1) ”. In paragraph 32(2)(c) for “section 23(7)” substitute “ section 23B(1) ”. In paragraph 33(1)(a) and (2)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ a relevant offence ”. In paragraph 34(4)(a) and (b) for “offences under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ relevant offences ”. In paragraph 38(4), in the definition of “prosecutor” for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ a relevant offence ”. Omit the heading before paragraph 39. In paragraph 39(2)— In paragraph 40(1)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “ a relevant offence ”. In paragraph 42 after “section 23”, in each place where it occurs, insert “ or 23A ”. In paragraph 45, in paragraph (a) of the definition of “forfeiture order” after “section 23” insert “ or 23A ”. In Schedule 8 to that Act, in paragraphs 8(4)(d), 17(3)(c) and 34(2)(c) after “section 23” insert “ or 23A ”. The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 is amended as follows. In section 13(3)(d) after “section 23” insert “ or 23A ”. In section 82(e) after “section 23” insert “ , 23A ”. In section 97(3)(d) after “section 23” insert “ or 23A ”. In section 148(e) after “section 23” insert “ , 23A ”. In section 163(3)(d) after “section 23” insert “ or 23A ”. In section 230(e) after “section 23” insert “ , 23A ”. The financial information referred to in section 47(2)(gb) that a person to whom the notification requirements apply must provide is— the information specified in sub-paragraph (2) in respect of each account that the person holds with a financial institution on the date on which the notification is made, and if the person runs a business through a company— the information specified in sub-paragraph (2) in respect of each account that the company holds with a financial institution on the date on which the notification is made, and the name of the company concerned. The information required to be given in respect of each account is— the name of the financial institution with which the account is held; the address of the office at which the account is held and, if the office is outside the United Kingdom, the address of the principal office of the financial institution (if any) in the United Kingdom; the number of the account; the sort code, if any, in relation to the account; the card number of each payment card relating to the account; the start date (if any) and expiry date in relation to each such card. For the purposes of this paragraph— “company” includes any body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association; “financial institution” means a person who, in the course of a business, provides financial services consisting of the provision of current or savings accounts or payment card facilities; “payment card” means a credit card, a charge card, a prepaid card and a debit card; the cases in which a person “holds” an account include those where the person is entitled to operate the account; it does not matter if an account is held solely or jointly with one or more other persons; a person “runs” a business if the person (whether solely or jointly with one or more other persons) exercises, or is entitled to exercise, control or management of the business. The information about identification documents referred to in section 47(2)(gc) that a person to whom the notification requirements apply must provide is— where the person holds one or more passports on the date on which notification is made, for each passport that the person holds— the number of the passport; the person's full name as it appears in the passport; where the passport was issued by or on behalf of the authorities of a country, the name of the country; where the passport was issued by or on behalf of an international organisation, the name of the organisation; where the person does not hold a passport, but does hold one or more other identity documents (within the meaning of section 7 of the Identity Documents Act 2010) on the date on which notification is made, for each identity document that the person holds— a description of the identity document; the issue number (if any) of the identity document; the person's full name as it appears in the identity document; where the identity document was issued by or on behalf of the authorities of a country, the name of the country; where the identity document was issued by or on behalf of an international organisation, the name of the organisation. A “notification order” is an order applying the notification requirements of this Part to a person who has been dealt with outside the United Kingdom in respect of a corresponding foreign offence. A “corresponding foreign offence” means an act that— constituted an offence under the law in force in a country outside the United Kingdom, and corresponds to an offence to which this Part applies. For this purpose an act punishable under the law in force in a country outside the United Kingdom is regarded as constituting an offence under that law however it is described in that law. An act corresponds to an offence to which this Part applies if— it would have constituted an offence to which this Part applies by virtue of section 41 if it had been done in any part of the United Kingdom, or it was, or took place in the course of, an act of terrorism or was done for the purposes of terrorism. On an application for a notification order the condition in sub-paragraph (3)(a) or (b) is to be taken to be met unless— the defendant serves on the applicant, not later than rules of court may provide, a notice— stating that, on the facts as alleged with respect to the act concerned, the condition is not in the defendant's opinion met, showing the defendant's grounds for that opinion, and requiring the applicant to prove that the condition is met; or the court permits the defendant to require the applicant to prove that the condition is met without service of such a notice. In the application of this paragraph in Scotland, for “defendant” substitute “respondent”. The conditions for making a notification order in respect of a person are as follows. The first condition is that under the law in force in a country outside the United Kingdom— the person has been convicted of a corresponding foreign offence and has received in respect of the offence a sentence equivalent to a sentence mentioned in section 45(1)(a), (2)(a) or (3)(a), or a court exercising jurisdiction under that law has, in respect of a corresponding foreign offence— convicted the person or made a finding in relation to the person equivalent to a finding mentioned in section 45(1)(b)(ii) or (iii), (2)(b)(ii) or (iii) or (3)(b)(ii) or (iii) (finding of insanity or disability), and made the person subject to an order equivalent to a hospital order. This condition is not met if there was a flagrant denial of the person's right to a fair trial. The second condition is that— the sentence was imposed or order made after the commencement of this Part, or the sentence was imposed or order made before the commencement of this Part and immediately before that time the person— was imprisoned or detained in pursuance of the sentence or order, would have been so imprisoned or detained but for being unlawfully at large or otherwise unlawfully absent, lawfully absent on a temporary basis or on bail pending an appeal, or had been released on licence, or was subject to an equivalent form of supervision, having served the whole or part of a sentence of imprisonment for the offence. The third condition is that the period for which the notification requirements would apply in respect of the offence (in accordance with section 53 as modified by paragraph 8(e)) has not expired. If on an application for a notification order it is proved that the conditions in sub-paragraphs (2), (4) and (5) are met, the court must make the order. In England and Wales an application for a notification order in respect of a person may only be made by a chief officer of police. An application may only be made if— the person resides in the chief officer's police area, or the chief officer believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, that area. The application must be made to the High Court. In Scotland an application for a notification order in respect of a person may only be made by the chief constable of the Police Service of Scotland . the person resides in Scotland , or the chief constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, Scotland . The application must be made to the Court of Session. In Northern Ireland an application for a notification order in respect of a person may only be made by the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland. the person resides in Northern Ireland, or the Chief Constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, Northern Ireland. The effect of a notification order is that the notification requirements of this Part apply to the person in respect of whom it is made. The provisions of this Part have effect with the following adaptations in relation to foreign proceedings and cases where the notification requirements apply because a notification order has been made— in section 61(1) (references to dealing with an offence) for “being sentenced, or made subject to a hospital order” substitute “being made subject by the foreign court to a sentence or order within paragraph 3(2)(a) or (b) of Schedule 4”; in section 61(2) (references to time when person dealt with for an offence) for paragraphs (a) to (c) substitute “by the foreign court of first instance”; for the purposes of section 47 (initial notification) the period within which notification is to be made begins with the date of service of the notification order; in section 51 (meaning of “local police area”) the reference in subsection (1)(c) to the court of trial shall be read as a reference to the court by which the notification order was made; in section 53 (period for which notification requirements apply) a reference to a sentence or order of any description is to be read as a reference to an equivalent sentence or order of the foreign court. A foreign travel restriction order is an order prohibiting the person to whom it applies from doing whichever of the following is specified in the order— travelling to a country outside the United Kingdom named or described in the order; travelling to any country outside the United Kingdom other than a country named or described in the order; The conditions for making a foreign travel restriction order in respect of a person are as follows. The first condition is that the notification requirements apply to the person. The second condition is that the person's behaviour since the person was dealt with for the offence by virtue of which those requirements apply makes it necessary for a foreign travel restriction order to be made to prevent the person from taking part in terrorism activity outside the United Kingdom. If the person was dealt with for the offence before the commencement of this Part, the condition in sub-paragraph (3) is not met unless the person has acted in that way since the commencement of this Part. If on an application for a foreign travel restriction order the court is satisfied that the conditions in sub-paragraphs (2) and (3) are met, it may make a foreign travel restriction order. In England and Wales an application for a foreign travel restriction order in respect of a person may only be made by a chief officer of police. The application must be made by complaint to a magistrates' court whose commission area includes any part of the chief officer's police area. In Scotland an application for a foreign travel restriction order in respect of a person may only be made by the chief constable of the Police Service of Scotland . The application must be made by summary application .... A record of evidence is to be kept on any such summary application. Where the sheriff makes a foreign travel restriction order, the clerk of the court must give a copy of the order to the respondent or send a copy to the respondent by registered post or the recorded delivery service. An acknowledgement or certificate of delivery issued by the Post Office is sufficient evidence of the delivery of the copy on the day specified in the acknowledgement or certificate. In Northern Ireland an application for a foreign travel restriction order in respect of a person may only be made by the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland. The application must be made by complaint under Part 8 of the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) to a court of summary jurisdiction. A foreign travel restriction order may prohibit the person to whom it applies— from travelling to any country outside the United Kingdom named or described in the order; or from travelling to any country outside the United Kingdom other than a country named or described in the order; or from travelling to any country outside the United Kingdom. The order must only impose such prohibitions as are necessary for the purpose of preventing the person from taking part in terrorism activity outside the United Kingdom. A foreign travel restriction order containing a prohibition within sub-paragraph (1)(c) must require the person to whom it applies to surrender all that person's passports, at a police station specified in the order— on or before the date when the prohibition takes effect, or within a period specified in the order. Any passports surrendered must be returned as soon as reasonably practicable after the person ceases to be subject to a foreign travel restriction order containing such a prohibition. A foreign travel restriction order has effect for a fixed period of not more than 6 months. The period must be specified in the order. A foreign travel restriction order ceases to have effect if a court (whether the same or another court) makes another foreign travel restriction order in relation to the person to whom the earlier order applies. In England and Wales an application for an order varying, renewing or discharging a foreign travel restriction order may be made by— the person subject to the order; the chief officer of police on whose application the order was made; the chief officer of police for the area in which the person subject to the order resides; or a chief officer of police who believes that the person subject to the order is in, or is intending to come to, the officer's police area. The application must be made by complaint to— a magistrates' court for the same area as the court that made the order, a magistrates' court for the area in which the person subject to the order resides, or where the application is made by a chief officer of police, any magistrates' court whose commission area includes any part of that chief officer's police area. On an application under this paragraph the court may make such order varying, renewing or discharging the foreign travel restriction order as it considers appropriate. Before doing so it must hear the person making the application and (if they wish to be heard) the other persons mentioned in sub-paragraph (1). In Scotland an application for an order varying, renewing or discharging a foreign travel restriction order may be made by— The application must be made by summary application— to a sheriff— within whose sheriffdom the person subject to the order resides, or A record of evidence is to be kept on any summary application under this paragraph. On an application under this paragraph the sheriff may make such order varying, renewing or discharging the foreign travel restriction order as the sheriff considers appropriate. Before doing so the sheriff must hear the person making the application and (if they wish to be heard) the other persons mentioned in sub-paragraph (1). In Northern Ireland an application for an order varying, renewing or discharging a foreign travel restriction order may be made by— the person subject to the order; or The application must be made by complaint under Part 8 of the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) to a court of summary jurisdiction .... It may do so only after hearing the person making the application and (if they wish to be heard) the other person mentioned in sub-paragraph (1). A foreign travel restriction order may be renewed, or varied so as to impose additional prohibitions, but only if it is necessary to do so for the purpose of preventing the person subject to the order from taking part in terrorism activities outside the United Kingdom. Any renewed or varied order must contain only the prohibitions necessary for that purpose. In England and Wales— a person against whom a foreign travel restriction order is made may appeal against the making of the order; a person subject to a foreign travel restriction order may appeal against— an order under paragraph 8 varying or renewing the order, or a refusal to make an order under that paragraph varying or discharging the order. The appeal lies to the Crown Court. On an appeal under this paragraph the court may make— such orders as it considers necessary to give effect to its determination of the appeal, and such incidental and consequential orders as appear to it to be just. In Scotland an interlocutor of the sheriff granting or refusing a foreign travel restriction order, or an order under paragraph 9 (variation, renewal or discharge of foreign travel restriction order), is appealable. Where an appeal is taken against such an interlocutor, the interlocutor continues in effect pending disposal of the appeal. In Northern Ireland— an order under paragraph 10 varying or renewing the order, or The appeal lies to the county court. A person commits a offence who, without reasonable excuse— does anything they are prohibited from doing by a foreign travel restriction order, or fails to comply with a requirement imposed on them by such an order. A person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable— In the application of this paragraph in England and Wales, the reference in sub-paragraph (2)(a) to 12 months is to be read as a reference to the general limit in a magistrates’ court (or to 6 months in relation to an offence committed before 2 May 2022). In the application of sub-paragraph (2)(a)— Where a person is convicted of an offence under this paragraph, it is not open to the court by or before which they are convicted— in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, to make an order for conditional discharge in respect of the offence; in Scotland, to make a probation order in respect of the offence. In this Schedule “terrorism activity” means anything that— if done in any part of the United Kingdom, would constitute an offence to which this Part applies by virtue of section 41, or is, or takes place in the course of, an act of terrorism or is for the purposes of terrorism. This Part applies to a service offence as respects which the corresponding civil offence is an offence within section 41(1) or (2) (offences to which this Part applies: terrorism offences). This Part applies to a service offence as to which the service court dealing with the offence has determined in accordance with section 69 of the Sentencing Code (as applied by section 238(6) of the Armed Forces Act 2006) that the offence has a terrorist connection. A person to whom the notification requirements apply by virtue of such a determination may appeal against it to the same court, and subject to the same conditions, as an appeal against sentence. This Part applies to a person dealt with for a service offence before the commencement of this Part only if— the corresponding civil offence is on the commencement of this Part within section 41(1) or (2) (offences to which this Part applies: terrorism offences), and is imprisoned or detained in pursuance of the sentence or other order made in respect of the offence, would be so imprisoned or detained but for being unlawfully at large, absent without leave, on temporary leave or leave of absence, or released from custody (or on bail) pending an appeal, or is on licence having served the custodial part of a sentence of imprisonment in respect of the offence. In relation to a person dealt with for a service offence before the commencement of this Part, any reference in this Schedule to a sentence, order or finding under a specified statutory provision includes a sentence or order under any corresponding earlier statutory provision. is aged 16 or over at the time of being dealt with for a service offence to which this Part applies, and is made subject in respect of the offence to a sentence or order within paragraph 5 (sentences or orders triggering notification requirements). has been convicted of a service offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in respect of the offence to— imprisonment or custodial order for a term of 12 months or more, detention for life or for a period of 12 months or more under section 71A(4) of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force Act 1955, section 43A(4) of the Naval Discipline Act 1957 or section 209 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 52), detention and training (and supervision) under section 211 of that Act, where the term of the order under that section is 12 months or more, detention for public protection under section 226 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003, detention under s. 226B of that Act or section 254 of the Sentencing Code (extended sentence of detention for certain dangerous offenders aged under 18); or convicted of a service offence to which this Part applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more, found to be unfit to stand trial and to have done the act charged against them in respect of such an offence, The reference in sub-paragraph (1)(b)(i) to an offence carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more— is to an offence carrying such a maximum term in the case of a person who has attained the age of 18 (or 21, as respects any time before the coming into force of section 61 of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43)), and includes an offence carrying in the case of such a person a maximum term of life imprisonment and an offence for which in the case of such a person the sentence is fixed by law as life imprisonment. The Secretary of State may by order amend the provisions of paragraph 5 referring to a specified term or period of imprisonment or detention. An order under this paragraph is subject to affirmative resolution procedure. is aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the service offence, and receives in respect of the offence a sentence within sub-paragraph (2); receives in respect of the offence a sentence within sub-paragraph (3); The sentences where a 30 year period applies are— imprisonment or a custodial order for a term of 10 years or more, detention during Her Majesty's pleasure. The sentences where a 15 year period applies are imprisonment or a custodial order for a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years. If a person who is the subject of a finding within paragraph 5(1)(b)(iii) (finding of unfitness to stand trial etc) is subsequently tried for the offence, the period resulting from that finding ends— a person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more terrorism offences to consecutive terms of imprisonment is treated as if sentenced, in respect of each of the offences, to a term of imprisonment equal to the aggregate of the terms; and in service custody pursuant to a decision of a court or judge advocate (or an order of a commanding officer under section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 52)), In sub-paragraph (7)(b)— “service custody” includes, in relation to times before the commencement of the relevant provisions of the Armed Forces Act 2006, military custody, air-force custody and naval custody; “judge advocate” includes, in relation to such times, judicial officer; the reference to section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 includes, in relation to times before the commencement of that section, a reference to— section 75K of the Army Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 18) or the Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19); section 47L of the Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c. 53). In the following provisions, references to a person committed to custody by an order of a court include a person in service custody pursuant to a decision of a court or judge advocate (or an order of a commanding officer under section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006)— section 47(4) (initial notification); section 48(8) (notification of changes); section 49(2) (periodic re-notification); section 53(7) (period for which requirements apply); section 56(3) (notification on return after absence from UK). In section 48(4) (notification on release from custody etc) the reference to custody pursuant to an order of a court includes service custody pursuant to a decision of a court or judge advocate (or an order of a commanding officer under section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006). Paragraph 7(8) (meaning of “service custody” and “judge advocate” etc) applies for the purposes of this paragraph. In the application of section 47(6) (initial notification: person dealt with before commencement) in relation to a service offence, the reference to a person being on bail pending an appeal includes a person released from custody pending an appeal. Where in relation to a service offence the court of trial (as defined by subsection (2) of section 51 (meaning of “local police area”)) was situated outside the United Kingdom, that section has effect as if subsection (1)(c) were omitted. References in this Part to a sentence of detention do not include— a sentence of service detention (as defined by section 374 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 52)), or a corresponding sentence passed under (or by virtue of) the Army Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 18), the Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19) or the Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c. 53). The following provisions do not apply in relation to service offences— section 43 (offences dealt with before commencement); section 45 (sentences or orders triggering notification requirements); section 53 (period for which requirements apply). An order under subsection (4) of section 380 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (power to make transitional modifications etc) which makes provision of the kind mentioned in subsection (6) of that section may provide for paragraph 5(1)(a) or paragraph 7(2) or (3) above to have effect with such modifications (relating to custodial punishments specified in the order) as are so specified. The Treasury may give a direction under this Schedule if one or more of the following conditions is met in relation to a country. The first condition is that the Financial Action Task Force has advised that measures should be taken in relation to the country because of the risk of terrorist financing or money laundering activities being carried on— in the country, by the government of the country, or by persons resident or incorporated in the country. The second condition is that the Treasury reasonably believe that there is a risk that terrorist financing or money laundering activities are being carried on— by persons resident or incorporated in the country, and that this poses a significant risk to the national interests of the United Kingdom. The third condition is that the Treasury reasonably believe that— the development or production of nuclear, radiological, biological or chemical weapons in the country, or the doing in the country of anything that facilitates the development or production of any such weapons, poses a significant risk to the national interests of the United Kingdom. The power to give a direction is not exercisable in relation to an EEA state. “Terrorist financing” means— the use of funds, or the making available of funds, for the purposes of terrorism, or the acquisition, possession, concealment, conversion or transfer of funds that are (directly or indirectly) to be used or made available for those purposes. “Money laundering” means an act which falls within section 340(11) of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 29). “Nuclear weapon” includes a nuclear explosive device that is not intended for use as a weapon. “Radiological weapon” means a device designed to cause destruction, damage or injury by means of the radiation produced by the decay of radioactive material. “Chemical weapon” means a chemical weapon as defined by section 1(1) of the Chemical Weapons Act 1996 (c. 6), other than one whose intended use is only for permitted purposes (as defined by section 1(3) of that Act). “Biological weapon” means anything within section 1(1)(a) or (b) of the Biological Weapons Act 1974 (c. 6). A direction under this Schedule may be given to— a particular person operating in the financial sector, any description of persons operating in that sector, or all persons operating in that sector. In this Schedule “relevant person”, in relation to a direction, means any of the persons to whom the direction is given. A direction may make different provision in relation to different descriptions of relevant person. Any reference in this Schedule to a person operating in the financial sector is to a credit or financial institution that— is a United Kingdom person, or is acting in the course of a business carried on by it in the United Kingdom. This is subject to the exceptions in paragraph 6. Credit institution” means a credit institution, as defined in Article 4(1)(1) of the capital requirements regulation, when it accepts deposits or other repayable funds from the public or grants credits for its own account (within the meaning of that directive). “Financial institution” means— an undertaking, including a money service business, when it carries out one or more of the activities listed in points 2 to 12 , 14 and 15 of Schedule 2 to the Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017, other than— a credit institution; an undertaking whose only listed activity is trading for own account in one or more of the products listed in point 7 of Schedule 2 to the Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017 where the undertaking does not have a customer, and for this purpose “customer” means a person who is not a member of the same group as the undertaking; an insurance company duly authorised in accordance with the life assurance consolidation directive, when it carries out activities covered by that directive; a person equivalent to an insurance company within paragraph (b) whose head office is located in a non-EEA state, when carrying out activities of the kind mentioned in paragraph (b); a person whose regular occupation or business is the provision to other persons of an investment service or the performance of an investment activity on a professional basis, when providing or performing investment services or activities (within the meaning of the markets in financial instruments directive), other than a person falling within Article 2 of that directive; a collective investment undertaking, when marketing or otherwise offering its units or shares; an insurance intermediary as defined in article 33B(4) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001, when it acts in respect of contracts of long-term insurance within the meaning given by article 3(1) of, and Part II of Schedule 1 to, that Order; an insurance company (as defined by section 1165(3) of the Companies Act 2006 (c. 46)); the National Savings Bank; the Director of Savings, when money is raised under the auspices of the Director under the National Loans Act 1968 (c. 13). The fact that an institution's head office is located in a non-EEA state does not prevent it from being a credit institution or a financial institution for the purposes of this Schedule. For the purposes of this Schedule the following are not regarded as persons operating in the financial sector when carrying out any of the following activities— a registered society within the meaning of the Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 2014, when it— issues withdrawable share capital within the limit set by section 24 of that Act (maximum shareholding in society); or accepts deposits from the public within the limit set by section 67(2) of that Act (carrying on of banking by societies); a society registered under the Industrial and Provident Societies Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 (c. 24 (N.I.)), when it— issues withdrawable share capital within the limit set by section 6 of that Act (maximum shareholding in society); or accepts deposits from the public within the limit set by section 7(3) of that Act (carrying on of banking by societies); a person within any of paragraphs 1 to 23 or 25 to 51 of the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Exemption) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/1201), when carrying out an activity in respect of which the person is exempt; a person who was an exempted person for the purposes of section 45 of the Financial Services Act 1986 (c. 60) (miscellaneous exemptions) immediately before its repeal, when exercising the functions specified in that section. A person who falls within the definition of “credit institution” or “financial institution” solely as a result of engaging in financial activity on an occasional or very limited basis is not regarded for the purposes of this Schedule as operating in the financial sector. For the purposes of sub-paragraph (2) a person is regarded as engaging in a financial activity on an occasional or very limited basis if— the person's total annual turnover in respect of the financial activity does not exceed £64,000, the financial activity is limited in relation to any customer to no more than one transaction exceeding 1,000 euro (whether the transaction is carried out in a single operation or a series of operations which appear to be linked), the financial activity does not exceed 5% of the person's total annual turnover, the financial activity is ancillary and directly related to the person's main activity, the financial activity is not the transmission or remittance of money (or any representation of monetary value) by any means, the person's main activity is not that of a credit or financial institution, and the financial activity is provided only to customers of the person's main activity. In this Part of this Schedule— ... “the capital requirements regulation” means Regulation (EU) No. 575/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 June 2013 on prudential requirements for credit institutions and investment firms; “the life assurance consolidation directive” means Directive 2002/83/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 5th November 2002 concerning life assurance; “the markets in financial instruments directive” means Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 May 2014 on markets in financial instruments. The Treasury may by order amend paragraphs 4 to 7. A direction under this Schedule may impose requirements in relation to transactions or business relationships with— a person carrying on business in the country; the government of the country; a person resident or incorporated in the country. a company that is a subsidiary of a company within paragraph (a) or (c). The direction may impose requirements in relation to— a particular person within sub-paragraph (1), any description of persons within that sub-paragraph, or all persons within that sub-paragraph. In this Schedule “designated person”, in relation to a direction, means any of the persons in relation to whom the direction is given. The kinds of requirement that may be imposed by a direction under this Schedule are specified in— paragraph 10 (customer due diligence); paragraph 11 (ongoing monitoring); paragraph 12 (systematic reporting); paragraph 13 (limiting or ceasing business). A direction may make different provision— in relation to different descriptions of designated person, and in relation to different descriptions of transaction or business relationship. Descriptions of transactions or business relationships for the purposes of sub-paragraph (5)(b) may, in particular, include transactions or business relationships of a particular branch (or description of branch) of a relevant person. The requirements imposed by a direction must be proportionate having regard to the advice mentioned in paragraph 1(2) or, as the case may be, the risk mentioned in paragraph 1(3) or (4) to the national interests of the United Kingdom. In this paragraph “subsidiary” has the meaning given by section 1159 of the Companies Act 2006 (and “company” has the same meaning as in that section). A direction may require a relevant person to undertake enhanced customer due diligence measures— before entering into a transaction or business relationship with a designated person, and during a business relationship with such a person. The direction may do either or both of the following— impose a general obligation to undertake enhanced customer due diligence measures; require a relevant person to undertake specific measures identified or described in the direction. “Customer due diligence measures” means measures to— establish the identity of the designated person, obtain information about— the designated person and their business, and the source of their funds, and assess the risk of the designated person being involved in relevant activities. In sub-paragraph (3)(c) “relevant activities” means— terrorist financing; money laundering; or the development or production of nuclear, radiological, biological or chemical weapons or the facilitation of that development or production. A direction may not impose requirements of a kind mentioned in this paragraph on a person who is regarded as operating in the financial sector by virtue only of paragraph 5(2)(g) (certain insurance companies). A direction may require a relevant person to undertake enhanced ongoing monitoring of any business relationship with a designated person. impose a general obligation to undertake enhanced ongoing monitoring;

“Ongoing monitoring” of a business relationship means— keeping up to date information and documents obtained for the purposes of customer due diligence measures, and scrutinising transactions undertaken during the course of the relationship (and, where appropriate, the source of funds for those transactions) to ascertain whether the transactions are consistent with the relevant person's knowledge of the designated person and their business. A direction may require a relevant person to provide such information and documents as may be specified in the direction relating to transactions and business relationships with designated persons. A direction imposing such a requirement must specify how the direction is to be complied with, including— the person to whom the information and documents are to be provided, and the period within which, or intervals at which, information and documents are to be provided. The power conferred by this paragraph is not exercisable in relation to information or documents in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal proceedings. The exercise of the power conferred by this paragraph and the provision of information under it is not otherwise subject to any restriction on the disclosure of information, whether imposed by statute or otherwise. A direction may require a relevant person not to enter into or continue to participate in— a specified transaction or business relationship with a designated person, a specified description of transactions or business relationships with a designated person, or any transaction or business relationship with a designated person. A direction given to— a description of persons operating in the financial sector, or all persons operating in that sector, must be contained in an order made by the Treasury. If the order contains requirements of a kind mentioned in paragraph 13 (limiting or ceasing business)— it must be laid before Parliament after being made, and if not approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament before the end of 28 days beginning with the day on which it is made, it ceases to have effect at the end of that period. In calculating the period of 28 days, no account is to be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days. An order's ceasing to have effect in accordance with sub-paragraph (2) does not affect anything done under the order. An order to which sub-paragraph (2) does not apply is subject to negative resolution procedure. If apart from this sub-paragraph an order under this paragraph would be treated for the purposes of the standing orders of either House of Parliament as a hybrid instrument, it is to proceed in that House as if it were not such an instrument. This paragraph applies in relation to a direction given to a particular person. The Treasury must give notice of the direction to the person. The direction (if not previously revoked and whether or not varied) ceases to have effect at the end of the period of one year beginning with the day on which the direction is given. This is without prejudice to the giving of a further direction. The Treasury may vary or revoke the direction at any time. Where the direction is varied or ceases to have effect (whether on revocation or otherwise), the Treasury must give notice of that fact to the person. This paragraph applies to an order containing directions under paragraph 14 (general directions given by order). The Treasury must take such steps as they consider appropriate to publicise the making of the order. An order— revoking the order, or varying the order so as to make its provisions less onerous, is subject to negative resolution procedure. The order (if not previously revoked and whether or not varied) ceases to have effect at the end of the period of one year beginning with the day on which it was made. This is without prejudice to the making of a further order. Where the order is varied or ceases to have effect (whether on revocation or otherwise), the Treasury must take such steps as they consider appropriate to publicise that fact. The following provisions apply where a direction contains requirements of a kind mentioned in paragraph 13 (limiting or ceasing business). The Treasury may grant a licence to exempt acts specified in the licence from those requirements. A licence may be— general or granted to a description of persons or to a particular person; subject to conditions; of indefinite duration or subject to an expiry date. The Treasury may vary or revoke a licence at any time. On the grant, variation or revocation of a licence, the Treasury must— in the case of a licence granted to a particular person, give notice of the grant, variation or revocation to that person; in the case of a general licence or a licence granted to a description of persons, take such steps as the Treasury consider appropriate to publicise the grant, variation or revocation of the licence. In this Schedule “enforcement authority” means— The Financial Conduct Authority (“the FCA”), the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs (“HMRC”), ... In this Part of this Schedule “enforcement officer” means— an officer of the FCA , including a member of the staff or an agent of the FCA , an officer of Revenue and Customs, . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . or a local enforcement officer. A “local enforcement officer” means— in Great Britain, an officer of a local weights and measures authority; in Northern Ireland, an officer of the Department of Enterprise, Trade and Investment in Northern Ireland (“DETINI”) acting pursuant to arrangements made with the FCA for the purposes of this Schedule. An enforcement officer may by notice to a relevant person require the person— to provide such information as may be specified in the notice, or to produce such documents as may be so specified. An officer may exercise powers under this paragraph only if the information or documents sought to be obtained as a result are reasonably required in connection with the exercise by the enforcement authority for whom the officer acts of its functions under this Schedule. Where an officer requires information to be provided or documents produced under this paragraph— the notice must set out the reasons why the officer requires the information to be provided or the documents produced, and the information must be provided or the documents produced— before the end of such reasonable period as may be specified in the notice; and at such place as may be so specified. In relation to a document in electronic form the power to require production of it includes a power to require the production of a copy of it in legible form or in a form from which it can readily be produced in visible and legible form. An enforcement officer may take copies of, or make extracts from, any document produced under this paragraph. The production of a document does not affect any lien which a person has on the document. Where an enforcement officer has reasonable cause to believe that any premises are being used by a relevant person in connection with the person's business activities, the officer may on producing evidence of authority at any reasonable time— enter the premises; inspect the premises; observe the carrying on of business activities by the relevant person; inspect any document found on the premises; require any person on the premises to provide an explanation of any document or to state where it may be found. An enforcement officer may take copies of, or make extracts from, any document found under sub-paragraph (1). An officer may exercise powers under this paragraph only if the information or document sought to be obtained as a result is reasonably required in connection with the exercise by the enforcement authority for whom the officer acts of its functions under this Schedule. In this paragraph “premises” means any premises other than premises used only as a dwelling. A justice may issue a warrant under this paragraph if satisfied on information on oath given by an enforcement officer that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the first, second or third set of conditions is satisfied. The first set of conditions is— that there is on the premises specified in the warrant a document in relation to which a requirement could be imposed under paragraph 19(1)(b), and that if such a requirement were to be imposed— it would not be complied with, or the document to which it relates would be removed, tampered with or destroyed. The second set of conditions is— that a person on whom a requirement has been imposed under paragraph 19(1)(b) has failed (wholly or in part) to comply with it, and that there is on the premises specified in the warrant a document that has been required to be produced. The third set of conditions is— that an enforcement officer has been obstructed in the exercise of a power under paragraph 20, and that there is on the premises specified in the warrant a document that could be inspected under paragraph 20(1)(d). A justice may issue a warrant under this paragraph if satisfied on information on oath given by an officer that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that— an offence under this Schedule has been, is being or is about to be committed by a relevant person, and there is on the premises specified in the warrant a document relevant to whether that offence has been, or is being or is about to be committed. A warrant issued under this paragraph shall authorise an enforcement officer— to enter the premises specified in the warrant; to search the premises and take possession of anything appearing to be a document specified in the warrant or to take, in relation to any such document, any other steps which may appear to be necessary for preserving it or preventing interference with it; to take copies of, or extracts from, any document specified in the warrant; to require any person on the premises to provide an explanation of any document appearing to be of the kind specified in the warrant or to state where it may be found; to use such force as may reasonably be necessary. Where a warrant is issued by a justice under sub-paragraph (1) or (5) on the basis of information on oath given by an officer of the FCA , for “an enforcement officer” in sub-paragraph (6) substitute “a constable”. In sub-paragraphs (1), (5) and (7), “justice” means— in relation to England and Wales, a justice of the peace; in relation to Scotland, a justice within the meaning of section 307 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46) (interpretation); in relation to Northern Ireland, a lay magistrate. In the application of this paragraph to Scotland, the references in sub-paragraphs (1), (5) and (7) to information on oath are to be read as references to evidence on oath. This paragraph applies in relation to the powers conferred by— paragraph 19 (power to require information or documents), paragraph 20 (entry, inspection without warrant etc), or paragraph 21 (entry to premises under warrant). Those powers are not exercisable in relation to information or documents in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal proceedings. The exercise of those powers and the provision of information or production of documents under them is not otherwise subject to any restriction on the disclosure of information, whether imposed by statute or otherwise. If on an application made by— an enforcement authority, or a local weights and measures authority or DETINI pursuant to arrangements made with the FCA — by or on behalf of the authority; or by DETINI, it appears to the court that a person (the “information defaulter”) has failed to do something that they were required to do under paragraph 19(1), the court may make an order under this paragraph. An order under this paragraph may require the information defaulter— to do the thing that they failed to do within such period as may be specified in the order; otherwise to take such steps to remedy the consequences of the failure as may be so specified. If the information defaulter is a body corporate, a partnership or an unincorporated body of persons that is not a partnership, the order may require any officer of the body corporate, partnership or body, who is (wholly or partly) responsible for the failure to meet such costs of the application as are specified in the order. In this paragraph “the court” means— in England and Wales and Northern Ireland, the High Court or the county court; in Scotland, the Court of Session or the sheriff court. A local enforcement officer may only exercise powers under this Part of this Schedule pursuant to arrangements made with the FCA — by or on behalf of the relevant local weights and measures authority, or by DETINI. Anything done or omitted to be done by, or in relation to, a local enforcement officer in the exercise or purported exercise of a power in this Part of this Schedule is treated for all purposes as if done or omitted to be done by, or in relation to, an officer of the OFT. Sub-paragraph (2) does not apply for the purposes of criminal proceedings brought against the local enforcement officer, the relevant local weights and measures authority, DETINI or the FCA, in respect of anything done or omitted to be done by the officer. A local enforcement officer must not disclose to any person other than the FCA and the relevant local weights and measures authority or, as the case may be, DETINI information obtained by the officer in the exercise of powers under this Part of this Schedule unless— the officer has the approval of the FCA to do so, or the officer is under a duty to make the disclosure. In this paragraph “the relevant local weights and measures authority”, in relation to a local enforcement officer, means the authority of which the officer is an officer. An enforcement authority may impose a penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on a person who fails to comply with a requirement imposed— by a direction under this Schedule, or by a condition of a licence under paragraph 17. For this purpose “appropriate” means effective, proportionate and dissuasive. No such penalty is to be imposed if the authority is satisfied that the person took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to ensure that the requirement would be complied with. In deciding whether to impose a penalty for failure to comply with a requirement, an enforcement authority must consider whether the person followed any relevant guidance which was at the time— issued by a supervisory authority or any other appropriate body, approved by the Treasury, and published in a manner approved by the Treasury as suitable in their opinion to bring the guidance to the attention of persons likely to be affected by it. In sub-paragraph (3) “appropriate body” means a body which regulates or is representative of any trade, profession, business or employment carried on by the person. A person on whom a penalty is imposed under this paragraph is not liable to be proceeded against for an offence under paragraph 30 in respect of the same failure. An enforcement authority may impose a penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on a relevant person who has intentionally participated in activities knowing that the object or effect of them was (whether directly or indirectly) to circumvent a requirement imposed by a direction under this Schedule. In sub-paragraph (1) “appropriate” means effective, proportionate and dissuasive. A person on whom a penalty is imposed under this paragraph is not liable to be proceeded against for an offence under paragraph 30A in respect of participation in the same activities. This paragraph applies where HMRC decide to impose a penalty under paragraph 25 or 25A on a person. HMRC must give the person notice of— their decision to impose the penalty and its amount, the reasons for imposing the penalty, the right to a review under paragraph 26A, and the right to appeal under this paragraph. The person may appeal to the tribunal against the decision in accordance with paragraph 26F. On the appeal the tribunal may— set aside the decision appealed against, and impose any penalty that could have been imposed by HMRC or remit the matter to HMRC. In this paragraph, and in paragraphs 26A to 26F, “tribunal” means the First-tier Tribunal or, where so provided by or determined under Tribunal Procedure Rules, the Upper Tribunal. Section 85 of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 (settling appeals by agreement) shall apply to appeals under this paragraph as if the reference to section 83 of that Act included a reference to this paragraph. HMRC must offer a person (P) a review of a decision that has been notified to P if an appeal lies under paragraph 26 in respect of the decision. The offer of the review must be made by notice given to P at the same time as the decision is notified to P. This paragraph does not apply to the notification of the conclusions of a review. HMRC must review a decision if— they have offered a review of the decision under paragraph 26A, and P notifies HMRC accepting the offer within 30 days from the date of the document containing the notification of the offer. But P may not notify acceptance of the offer if P has already appealed to the tribunal under paragraph 26F. HMRC shall not review a decision if P has appealed to the tribunal under paragraph 26F in respect of the decision. If under paragraph 26A, HMRC have offered P a review of a decision, HMRC may within the relevant period notify P that the relevant period is extended. If notice is given the relevant period is extended to the end of 30 days from— the date of the notice, or any other date set out in the notice or a further notice. In this paragraph “relevant period” means— the period of 30 days referred to in paragraph 26B(1)(b), or if notice has been given under sub-paragraph (1) that period as extended (or as most recently extended) in accordance with sub-paragraph (2). This paragraph applies if— HMRC have offered a review of a decision under paragraph 26A, and P does not accept the offer within the time allowed under paragraph 26B(1)(b) or 26C(2). HMRC must review the decision under paragraph 26B if— after the time allowed, P notifies HMRC in writing requesting a review out of time, HMRC are satisfied that P had a reasonable excuse for not accepting the offer or requiring review within the time allowed, and HMRC are satisfied that P made the request without unreasonable delay after the excuse had ceased to apply. This paragraph applies if HMRC are required to undertake a review under paragraph 26B or 26D. The nature and extent of the review are to be such as appear appropriate to HMRC in the circumstances. For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2), HMRC must, in particular, have regard to steps taken before the beginning of the review— by HMRC in reaching the decision, and by any person in seeking to resolve disagreement about the decision. The review must take account of any representations made by P at a stage which gives HMRC a reasonable opportunity to consider them. The review may conclude that the decision is to be— upheld, varied, or cancelled. HMRC must give P notice of the conclusions of the review and their reasoning within— a period of 45 days beginning with the relevant date, or such other period as HMRC and P may agree. In sub-paragraph (6) “relevant date” means— the date HMRC received P’s notification accepting the offer of a review (in a case falling within paragraph 26A), or the date on which HMRC decided to undertake the review (in a case falling within paragraph 26D). Where HMRC are required to undertake a review but do not give notice of the conclusions within the time period specified in sub-paragraph (6), the review is to be treated as having concluded that the decision is upheld. If sub-paragraph (8) applies, HMRC must notify P of the conclusion which the review is treated as having reached. An appeal under paragraph 26 is to be made to the tribunal before— the end of the period of 30 days beginning with the date of the document notifying the decision to which the appeal relates, or if later, the end of the relevant period (within the meaning of paragraph 26C). But that is subject to sub-paragraphs (3) to (5). In a case where HMRC are required to undertake a review under paragraph 26B— an appeal may not be made until the conclusion date, and any appeal is to be made within the period of 30 days beginning with the conclusion date. In a case where HMRC are requested to undertake a review in accordance with paragraph 26D— an appeal may not be made— unless HMRC have decided whether or not to undertake a review, and if HMRC decide to undertake a review, until the conclusion date; and any appeal is to be made within the period of 30 days beginning with— the conclusion date (if HMRC decide to undertake a review), or the date on which HMRC decide not to undertake a review. In a case where paragraph 26E(8) applies, an appeal may be made at any time from the end of the period specified in paragraph 26E(6) to the date 30 days after the conclusion date. An appeal may be made after the end of the period specified in sub-paragraph (1), (3)(b), (4)(b) or (5) if the tribunal gives permission to do so. In this paragraph “conclusion date” means the date of the document notifying the conclusions of the review. This paragraph applies if the FCA ... (“the authority”) proposes to impose a penalty under paragraph 25 or 25A on a person. The authority must give the person notice of— the proposal to impose the penalty and the proposed amount, the reasons for imposing the penalty, and the right to make representations to the authority within a specified period (which may not be less than 28 days). The authority must then decide, within a reasonable period, whether to impose a penalty under paragraph 25 or (as the case may be) 25A and must give the person notice— if it decides not to impose a penalty, of that decision; if it decides to impose a penalty, of the following matters— the decision to impose a penalty and the amount, the reasons for the decision, and the right to appeal under paragraph 28. A person may appeal to the tribunal against— a decision of the FCA ... under paragraph 27. On the appeal the tribunal ... may— impose any penalty that could have been imposed by the body whose decision is appealed or remit the matter to that body. In this paragraph “the tribunal” means the First-tier Tribunal or, where so provided by or determined under Tribunal Procedure Rules, the Upper Tribunal. A penalty imposed under paragraph 25 or 25A is payable to the enforcement authority that imposed it. Any such penalty is a debt due to the authority and is recoverable accordingly. A person who fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a direction under this Schedule commits an offence, subject to the following provisions. No offence is committed if the person took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to ensure that the requirement would be complied with. In deciding whether a person has committed an offence under this paragraph the court must consider whether the person followed any relevant guidance that was at the time— In sub-paragraph (3) “appropriate body” means a body that regulates or is representative of any trade, profession, business or employment carried on by the alleged offender. In a case where a person is guilty of an offence under this paragraph by failing to comply with a requirement of a kind mentioned in paragraph 13, the person is liable— in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court (or, in relation to offences committed before 2 May 2022, 6 months) or to a fine, or to both; in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months, or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or to both; in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or to both; on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or to a fine, or to both. In any other case, a person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable— on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum; on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or a fine or both. A person who is convicted of an offence under this paragraph is not liable to a penalty under paragraph 25 in respect of the same failure. A relevant person who intentionally participates in activities knowing that the object or effect of them is (whether directly or indirectly) to circumvent a requirement imposed by a direction under this Schedule commits an offence. In a case where a person is guilty of an offence under this paragraph in relation to a requirement of a kind mentioned in paragraph 13, the person is liable— A person who is convicted of an offence under this paragraph is not liable to a penalty under paragraph 25A in respect of participation in the same activities. A person commits an offence who for the purpose of obtaining a licence under paragraph 17— provides information that is false in a material respect or a document that is not what it purports to be, and knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the information is false or the document is not what it purports to be. A person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable — on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to a fine, or to both. An offence under this Schedule may be committed by a United Kingdom person by conduct wholly or partly outside the United Kingdom. Nothing in this paragraph affects any criminal liability arising otherwise than under this paragraph. Proceedings for an offence under this Schedule may be instituted in England and Wales only by— the FCA ; a local weights and measures authority; or the Director of Public Prosecutions. Proceedings for an offence under this Schedule may be instituted in Northern Ireland only by— HMRC; DETINI; or the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland. In section 168(4) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8) (appointment ... of persons to carry out investigation), after paragraph (b) insert— a person may be guilty of an offence under Schedule 7 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (terrorist financing or money laundering); In section 402(1) of that Act (power of FSA to institute proceedings), omit the “or” before paragraph (b) and after that paragraph insert— or Schedule 7 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (terrorist financing or money laundering). HMRC may conduct a criminal investigation into any offence under this Schedule. In sub-paragraph (5) “criminal investigation” has the meaning given by section 35(5)(b) of the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005 (c. 11). Where an offence under this Schedule is committed outside the United Kingdom— An information relating to an offence under this Schedule that is triable by a magistrates' court in England and Wales may be so tried if it is laid— at any time within three years after the commission of the offence, and within twelve months after the date on which evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings comes to the knowledge of the prosecutor. Summary proceedings in Scotland for an offence under this Schedule— must not be commenced after the expiration of three years from the commission of the offence; subject to that, may be commenced at any time within twelve months after the date on which evidence sufficient in the Lord Advocate's opinion to justify the proceedings came to the knowledge of the Lord Advocate. Section 136(3) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46) (date when proceedings deemed to be commenced) applies for the purposes of this sub-paragraph as for the purposes of that section. A magistrates' court in Northern Ireland has jurisdiction to hear and determine a complaint charging the commission of a summary offence under this Schedule provided that the complaint is made— within three years from the time when the offence was committed, and within twelve months from the date on which evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings comes to the knowledge of the prosecutor. For the purposes of this paragraph a certificate of the prosecutor (or, in Scotland, the Lord Advocate) as to the date on which such evidence as is referred to above came to their notice is conclusive evidence. If an offence under this Schedule committed by a body corporate is shown— to have been committed with the consent or the connivance of an officer of the body corporate, or to be attributable to any neglect on the part of any such officer, the officer as well as the body corporate is guilty of an offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. If an offence under this Schedule committed by a partnership is shown— to have been committed with the consent or the connivance of a partner, or to be attributable to any neglect on the part of a partner, the partner as well as the partnership is guilty of an offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. If an offence under this Schedule committed by an unincorporated association (other than a partnership) is shown— to have been committed with the consent or the connivance of an officer of the association, or the officer as well as the association is guilty of an offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. If the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members, sub-paragraph (1) applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a member in connection with the member's functions of management as if the member were a director of the body. In this paragraph— “officer”— in relation to a body corporate, means a director, manager, secretary, chief executive, member of the committee of management, or a person purporting to act in such a capacity, and in relation to an unincorporated association, means any officer of the association or any member of its governing body, or a person purporting to act in such capacity; “partner” includes a person purporting to act as a partner. Proceedings for an offence under this Schedule alleged to have been committed by a partnership or an unincorporated association must be brought in the name of the partnership or association (and not in that of its members). In proceedings for such an offence brought against a partnership or unincorporated association— section 33 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 (c. 86) (procedure on charge of offence against corporation) and Schedule 3 to the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) (corporations) apply as they do in relation to a body corporate; section 70 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46) (proceedings against bodies corporate) applies as it does in relation to a body corporate; section 18 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 1945 (c. 15 (N.I.)) (procedure on charge) and Schedule 4 to the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) (corporations) apply as they do in relation to a body corporate. Rules of court relating to the service of documents have effect in relation to proceedings for an offence under this Schedule as if the partnership or association were a body corporate. A fine imposed on the partnership or association on its conviction of such an offence is to be paid out of the funds of the partnership or association. As soon as reasonably practicable after the end of each calendar year, the Treasury must— prepare a report about their exercise during that year of their functions under this Schedule, and lay a copy of the report before Parliament. Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply in relation to a year if no direction under this Schedule is in force at any time in that year. A supervisory authority must take appropriate measures to monitor persons operating in the financial sector for whom it is the supervisory authority for the purpose of securing compliance by those persons with the requirements of any directions under this Schedule. For the purposes of this Schedule— the FCA is the supervisory authority for— credit institutions that are authorised persons; financial institutions (except money service businesses that are not authorised persons ...); HMRC are the supervisory authority for money service businesses that are not authorised persons; Where under sub-paragraph (2) there is more than one supervisory authority for a person, the authorities may agree that one of them will act as the supervisory authority for that person for the purposes of this Schedule. Where an agreement has been made under sub-paragraph (3), the authority that has agreed to act as the supervisory authority must— where directions under this Schedule have been given to specified persons operating in the financial sector, notify those persons; where such directions have been given to all persons operating in the financial sector or to a description of such persons, publish the agreement in such way as it considers appropriate. Where no agreement has been made under sub-paragraph (3), the supervisory authorities for a person must co-operate in the performance of their functions under this paragraph. The Treasury must provide such assistance as may reasonably be required by a supervisory authority or other body drawing up guidance that, when issued and published with the approval of the Treasury, would be relevant guidance for the purposes of paragraph 25(3) (civil penalties) and 30(3) (offences: failure to comply with requirement imposed by direction). The functions of the FSA under this Schedule shall be treated for the purposes of Parts 1, 3 and 5 of Schedule 1ZA to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8) (general provisions relating to the Authority) as if they were functions conferred on the FCA under that Act. Any penalty under paragraph 25 or 25A (civil penalties) received by the FSA is to be applied towards expenses incurred by it in connection with its functions under this Schedule or for any incidental purpose. A notice under this Schedule may be given to a person— by posting it to the person's last known address, or where the person is a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association, by posting it to the registered or principal office of the body, partnership or association. Where the Treasury are under a duty to give a notice to a person but do not have an address for them, they must make arrangements for the notice to be given to the person at the first available opportunity. This Schedule binds the Crown, subject as follows. No contravention by the Crown of a provision of this Schedule makes the Crown criminally liable. The following courts may, on the application of a person appearing to the court to have an interest, declare unlawful any act or omission of the Crown that constitutes such a contravention— the High Court in England and Wales; the Court of Session; the High Court in Northern Ireland. Nothing in this paragraph affects Her Majesty in her private capacity. This is to be construed as if section 38(3) of the Crown Proceedings Act 1947 (c. 44) (meaning of Her Majesty in her private capacity) were contained in this Schedule. In this Schedule “United Kingdom person” means a United Kingdom national or a body incorporated or constituted under the law of any part of the United Kingdom. For this purpose a United Kingdom national is an individual who is— a British citizen, a British overseas territories citizen, a British National (Overseas) or a British Overseas citizen; a person who under the British Nationality Act 1981 (c. 61) is a British subject; or a British protected person within the meaning of that Act. Her Majesty may by Order in Council extend the definition in sub-paragraph (1) so as to apply to bodies incorporated or constituted under the law of any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any British overseas territory. In this Schedule— “authorised person” means a person who is authorised for the purposes of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8); “business relationship” means a business, professional or commercial relationship between a relevant person and a customer, which is expected by the relevant person, at the time when contact is established, to have an element of duration; “conduct” includes acts and omissions; “country” includes territory; “document” means information recorded in any form; “money service business” means an undertaking which by way of business operates a currency exchange office, transmits money (or any representations of monetary value) by any means or cashes cheques which are made payable to customers; “notice” means a notice in writing. In this Schedule any reference to an amount in one currency includes the equivalent amount in any other currency. Unless otherwise defined, expressions used in this Schedule and in Directive 2015/849/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20th May 2015 on the prevention of the use of the financial system for the purpose of money laundering or terrorist financing have the same meaning as in that Directive. In this Schedule the following expressions are defined or otherwise explained by the provisions indicated— The following Schedule is inserted after Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)— This Schedule makes supplementary provision relating to the offence in section 58A (eliciting, publishing or communicating information about members of the armed forces etc). The purpose of this Schedule is to comply with Directive 2000/31/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 8 June 2000 on certain legal aspects of information society services, in particular electronic commerce, in the Internal Market (“the E-Commerce Directive”). This paragraph applies where a service provider is established in the United Kingdom (a “domestic service provider”). Section 58A applies to a domestic service provider who— commits any of the acts specified in subsection (1) of that section in an EEA state other than the United Kingdom, and does so in the course of providing information society services, as it applies to a person who commits such an act in the United Kingdom. In such a case— This paragraph applies where a service provider is established in an EEA state other than the United Kingdom (a “non-UK service provider”). Proceedings for an offence under section 58A must not be brought against a non-UK service provider in respect of anything done in the course of the provision of information society services unless the following conditions are met. The conditions are— that the bringing of proceedings is necessary for one of the following reasons— public policy, public security, including the safeguarding of national security and defence; that the proceedings are brought against an information society service that prejudices the objectives referred to in paragraph (a) or presents a serious and grave risk of prejudice to those objectives; that the bringing of the proceedings is proportionate to those objectives. A service provider is not guilty of an offence under section 58A in respect of anything done in the course of providing so much of an information society service as consists in— the provision of access to a communication network, or the transmission in a communication network of information provided by a recipient of the service, if the following condition is satisfied. The condition is that the service provider does not— initiate the transmission, select the recipient of the transmission, or select or modify the information contained in the transmission. For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1)— the provision of access to a communication network, and the transmission of information in a communication network, includes the automatic, intermediate and transient storage of the information transmitted so far as the storage is solely for the purpose of carrying out the transmission in the network. Sub-paragraph (3) does not apply if the information is stored for longer than is reasonably necessary for the transmission. This paragraph applies where an information society service consists in the transmission in a communication network of information provided by a recipient of the service. The service provider is not guilty of an offence under section 58A in respect of the automatic, intermediate and temporary storage of information so provided, if— the storage of the information is solely for the purpose of making more efficient the onward transmission of the information to other recipients of the service at their request, and the following conditions are satisfied. The first condition is that the service provider does not modify the information. The second condition is that the service provider complies with any conditions attached to having access to the information. The third condition is that if the service provider obtains actual knowledge that— the information at the initial source of the transmission has been removed from the network, access to it has been disabled, or a court or administrative authority has ordered the removal from the network of, or the disablement of access to, the information, the service provider expeditiously removes the information or disables access to it. A service provider is not guilty of an offence under section 58A in respect of anything done in the course of providing so much of an information society service as consists in the storage of information provided by a recipient of the service, if the condition is met. The condition is that— the service provider had no actual knowledge when the information was provided that it contained offending material, or on obtaining actual knowledge that the information contained offending material, the service provider expeditiously removed the information or disabled access to it. “Offending material” means information about a person who is or has been— which is of a kind likely to be useful to a person committing or preparing an act of terrorism. This paragraph does not apply if the recipient of the service is acting under the authority or control of the service provider. In this paragraph “the intelligence services” means the Security Service, the Secret Intelligence Service and GCHQ (within the meaning of section 3 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c. 13)). “information society services”— has the meaning given in Article 2(a) of the E-Commerce Directive (which refers to Article 1(2) of Directive 98/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 22 June 1998 laying down a procedure for the provision of information in the field of technical standards and regulations), and is summarised in recital 17 of the E-Commerce Directive as covering “any service normally provided for remuneration, at a distance, by means of electronic equipment for the processing (including digital compression) and storage of data, and at the individual request of a recipient of a service”; “recipient”, in relation to a service, means any person who, for professional ends or otherwise, uses an information society service, in particular for the purposes of seeking information or making it accessible; “service provider” means a person providing an information society service. For the purposes of this Schedule whether a service provider is established in the United Kingdom, or in some other EEA state, shall be determined in accordance with the following provisions— a service provider is established in the United Kingdom, or in a particular EEA state, if the service provider— effectively pursues an economic activity using a fixed establishment in the United Kingdom, or that EEA state, for an indefinite period, and is a national of an EEA state or a company or firm mentioned in Article 48 of the EEC Treaty; the presence or use in a particular place of equipment or other technical means of providing an information society service does not, of itself, constitute the establishment of a service provider; where it cannot be determined from which of a number of establishments a given information society service is provided, that service is to be regarded as provided from the establishment at the centre of the service provider's activities relating to that service. Regulation 45E(3) and (4). In Regulation 109— In Regulation 115(2), “45E(3),”. Regulation 45D(3) and (4). In Regulation 108— In Regulation 115(2), “45D(3),”. Section 39(4)(g). In section 67, the definition of “Intelligence Service”. Section 54(7) to (9). Section 58(5) to (7). These revocations do not affect an application made before the commencement of section 63. In section 3— subsection (1)(c); in subsection (7) the words “within 7 days of the court's giving permission or (as the case may be) making its determination on the reference”. Section 8(8). In the Schedule, in paragraph 5(1)(a) the words “, at any time after a control order has been made,”. Act modified (21.2.2009) by The Banking Act 2009 (Parts 2 and 3 Consequential Amendments) Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/317), art. 3, Sch. S. 19 in force at 24.12.2008 by S.I. 2008/3296, art. 2 S. 20 in force at 24.12.2008 by S.I. 2008/3296, art. 2 S. 21 in force at 24.12.2008 by S.I. 2008/3296, art. 2 Sch. 1 para. 1 in force at 24.12.2008 by S.I. 2008/3296, art. 2 Sch. 1 para. 2 in force at 24.12.2008 by S.I. 2008/3296, art. 2 Sch. 1 para. 3 in force at 24.12.2008 by S.I. 2008/3296, art. 2 Sch. 1 para. 4 in force at 24.12.2008 by S.I. 2008/3296, art. 2 Sch. 1 para. 5 in force at 24.12.2008 by S.I. 2008/3296, art. 2 S. 29 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(a) S. 74 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(b) S. 75 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(c) S. 76 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(d) S. 77 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(e) S. 82 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(g) S. 83 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(h) S. 84 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(h) S. 99 in force at 16.2.2009 for specified purposes by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(i) Sch. 8 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(d) Sch. 9 Pt. 2 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(j) Sch. 9 Pt. 4 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(j) Sch. 9 Pt. 5 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(j) Sch. 9 Pt. 6 in force at 16.2.2009 by S.I. 2009/58, art. 2(j) Sch. 7 paras. 26A-26F and cross-headings inserted (1.4.2009) by Revenue and Customs Appeals Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/777), art. 1, Sch. para. 3 Words in Sch. 7 Pt. 6 cross-heading omitted (1.4.2009) by virtue of Revenue and Customs Appeals Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/777), art. 1, Sch. para. 2(2) Words in Sch. 7 Pt. 6 cross-heading inserted (1.4.2009) by Revenue and Customs Appeals Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/777), art. 1, Sch. para. 4(2) Words in Sch. 7 para. 26(2)(c) substituted (1.4.2009) by Revenue and Customs Appeals Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/777), art. 1, Sch. para. 2(3)(a) Words in Sch. 7 para. 26(2)(d) substituted (1.4.2009) by Revenue and Customs Appeals Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/777), art. 1, Sch. para. 2(3)(b) Sch. 7 para. 26(3)-(6) substituted (1.4.2009) by Revenue and Customs Appeals Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/777), art. 1, Sch. para. 2(4) Words in Sch. 7 para. 28(1) omitted (1.4.2009) by virtue of Revenue and Customs Appeals Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/777), art. 1, Sch. para. 4(3) Sch. 7 para. 28(4) omitted (1.4.2009) by virtue of Revenue and Customs Appeals Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/777), art. 1, Sch. para. 4(4) S. 28 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(a) S.

30 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(b) S. 31 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(b) Sch. 2 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(b) S. 34 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) S. 35 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) S. 36 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) S. 37 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) S. 38 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) S. 39 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) Sch. 3 para. 1 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) Sch. 3 para. 2 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) Sch. 3 para. 3 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) Sch. 3 para. 4 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) Sch. 3 para. 5 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) Sch. 3 para. 6 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) Sch. 3 para. 7 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(c) S. 99 in force at 18.6.2009 for specified purposes by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(d) Sch. 9 Pt. 3 in force at 18.6.2009 by S.I. 2009/1256, art. 2(e) S. 64(1)(a) omitted (31.8.2010) by virtue of Financial Restrictions Proceedings (UN Terrorism Orders) Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/1911), arts. 1(3), 2(2) S. 64(1)(c) omitted (31.8.2010) by virtue of Financial Restrictions Proceedings (UN Terrorism Orders) Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/1911), arts. 1(3), 2(2) S. 40 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 41 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 42 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 43 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 44 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 45 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 46 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 47 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 48 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 49 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 50 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 51 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 52 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 53 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 54 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 55 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 56 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 57 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 58 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 59 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 60 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) S. 61 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(a) Sch. 4 para. 1 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(b) Sch. 4 para. 2 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(b) Sch. 4 para. 3 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(b) Sch. 4 para. 4 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(b) Sch. 4 para. 5 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(b) Sch. 4 para. 6 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(b) Sch. 4 para. 7 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(b) Sch. 4 para. 8 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(b) Sch. 5 para. 1 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 2 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 3 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 4 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 5 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 6 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 7 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 8 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 9 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 10 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 11 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 12 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 13 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 14 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 15 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 5 para. 16 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(c) Sch. 6 para. 1 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 2 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 3 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 4 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 5 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 6 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 7 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 8 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 9 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 10 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 11 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 12 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 13 in force at 1.10.2009 by S.I. 2009/1493, art. 2(d) Sch. 6 para. 5(1)(a)(ii) modified (24.4.2009 for specified purposes, 31.10.2009 in so far as not already in force) by The Armed Forces Act 2006 (Transitional Provisions etc) Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/1059), art. 1(3), Sch. 2 para. 17(a) Sch. 6 para. 7(2)(b) modified (24.4.2009 for specified purposes, 31.10.2009 in so far as not already in force) by The Armed Forces Act 2006 (Transitional Provisions etc) Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/1059), art. 1(3), Sch. 2 para. 17(b) Sch. 6 para. 7(3) modified (24.4.2009 for specified purposes, 31.10.2009 in so far as not already in force) by The Armed Forces Act 2006 (Transitional Provisions etc) Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/1059), art. 1(3), Sch. 2 para. 17(b) Sch. 7 para. 28(6)-(8) omitted (6.4.2010) by virtue of The Transfer of Tribunal Functions Order 2010 (S.I. 2010/22), art. 1(2)(e), Sch. 2 para. 145 (with Sch. 5) Words in s. 45(3)(a)(vi) substituted (12.4.2010) by The Northern Ireland Act 1998 (Devolution of Policing and Justice Functions) Order 2010 (S.I. 2010/976), art. 1(2), Sch. 14 para. 91(2) (with arts. 28-31) Words in s. 53(2)(c)(v) substituted (12.4.2010) by The Northern Ireland Act 1998 (Devolution of Policing and Justice Functions) Order 2010 (S.I. 2010/976), art. 1(2), Sch. 14 para. 91(3) (with arts. 28-31) Ss. 66-68 applied (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 28(4), 55(1) (with s. 44) Sch. 7 para. 25A inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 50(2), 55(1) Sch. 7 para. 30A inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 50(3), 55(1) Words in Sch. 9 Pt. 4 repealed (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 2 Pt. 1 (with s. 44) S. 64(1)(e) repealed (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 2 Pt. 1 S. 75(2)(d) repealed (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 2 Pt. 1 Words in Sch. 7 para. 26(1) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 1 para. 10(1) Words in Sch. 7 para. 27(1) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 1 para. 10(2)(a) Words in Sch. 7 para. 27(3) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 1 para. 10(2)(b) Words in Sch. 7 para. 29(1) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 1 para. 10(3) Words in Sch. 7 para. 41(2) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 1 para. 10(4) Words in Sch. 7 para. 46 inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 1 para. 9(a) Words in Sch. 7 para. 46 inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(1), Sch. 1 para. 9(b) Sch. 7 para. 5(3) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 48(1)(d), 55(1) Sch. 7 para. 5(1) substituted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 48(1)(a), 55(1) Sch. 7 para. 5(2)(ba) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 48(1)(b), 55(1) Sch. 7 para. 5(2)(f) repealed (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 48(1)(c), 55(1), Sch. 2 Pt. 2 Sch. 7 para. 9(5A) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 48(2), 55(1) Sch. 7 para. 9(7) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 49(3), 55(1) Sch. 7 para. 9(1)(d) inserted (17.12.2010) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 49(2), 55(1) S. 63(1)(ac) inserted (3.3.2011) by The Libya (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/605), regs. 1(1), 19 (with reg. 18) Words in Sch. 7 para. 5(2)(a) substituted (9.2.2011 for specified purposes, 30.4.2011 in so far as not already in force) by The Electronic Money Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/99), reg. 1(2), Sch. 4 para. 6(b) S. 63(1)(ad) inserted (5.8.2011) by The Afghanistan (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/1893), regs. 1(1), 19 (with reg. 18) S. 63(1)(aa) repealed (16.11.2011) by The Al-Qaida (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/2742), regs. 1(1), 19(2) (with reg. 20) Ss. 10-13 omitted (15.12.2011) by virtue of Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (c. 23), s. 31(2), Sch. 7 para. 5(3) (with Sch. 8) Ss. 78-81 omitted (15.12.2011) by virtue of Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (c. 23), s. 31(2), Sch. 7 para. 5(4) (with Sch. 8) S. 1(1)(e) omitted (15.12.2011) by virtue of Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (c. 23), s. 31(2), Sch. 7 para. 5(2)(a) (with Sch. 8) S. 1(1)(g) inserted (15.12.2011) by Terrorism Prevention and Investigation Measures Act 2011 (c. 23), s. 31(2), Sch. 7 para. 5(2)(b) (with Sch. 8) S. 63(1)(ab) repealed (26.3.2012) by The Iran (European Union Financial Sanctions) Regulations 2012 (S.I. 2012/925), regs. 1(1), 28(2) (with regs. 26(1)(2)(4), 29(2)) Sch. 7 para. 18(1)(d) and preceding word repealed (31.3.2012) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 51(1)(b), 55(2), Sch. 2 Pt. 2; S.I. 2011/2835, art. 2(a)(d) Sch. 7 para. 18(2)(d) repealed (31.3.2012) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(2), Sch. 1 para. 11(1), Sch. 2 Pt. 2; S.I. 2011/2835, art. 2(c)(d) Words in Sch. 7 para. 18(3)(b) substituted (31.3.2012) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(2), Sch. 1 para. 11(2); S.I. 2011/2835, art. 2(c) Sch. 7 para. 28(2) repealed (31.3.2012) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(2), Sch. 1 para. 11(4)(a), Sch. 2 Pt. 2; S.I. 2011/2835, art. 2(c)(d) Words in Sch. 7 para. 28(3) repealed (31.3.2012) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(2), Sch. 1 para. 11(4)(b), Sch. 2 Pt. 2; S.I. 2011/2835, art. 2(c)(d) Sch. 7 para. 39(2)(d) repealed (31.3.2012) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), ss. 51(2), 55(2), Sch. 2 Pt. 2; S.I. 2011/2835, art. 2(a)(d) Words in Sch. 7 para. 46 substituted (31.3.2012) by Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 (c. 38), s. 55(2), Sch. 1 para. 11(5); S.I. 2011/2835, art. 2(c) S. 26 in force at 30.4.2012 by S.I. 2012/1121, art. 2 Words in s. 45(2)(b)(ii) substituted (with application in accordance with art. 3 of the commencing S.S.I.) by Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010 (asp 13), s. 206(1), sch. 7 para. 85(a); S.S.I. 2012/160, art. 3, sch. Words in s. 45(2)(b)(iii) substituted (with application in accordance with art. 3 of the commencing S.S.I.) by Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010 (asp 13), s. 206(1), sch. 7 para. 85(b); S.S.I. 2012/160, art. 3, sch. S. 22 in force at 10.7.2012 by S.I. 2012/1724, art. 2(a) S. 23 in force at 10.7.2012 by S.I. 2012/1724, art. 2(b) S. 25 in force at 10.7.2012 for E.W.S. by S.I. 2012/1724, art. 2(c) S. 1(1)(ba)(bb) inserted (10.7.2012) by Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 (c. 9), s. 120, Sch. 9 para. 33 (with s. 97); S.I. 2012/1205, art. 4(k) S. 27 in force at 26.7.2012 for E.W.S. by S.I. 2012/1966, art. 2 S. 45(1)(a)(via) inserted (3.12.2012) by Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (c. 10), s. 151(1), Sch. 21 para. 33(3); S.I. 2012/2906, art. 2(s) Sch. 6 para. 5(1)(a)(via) inserted (3.12.2012) by Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (c. 10), s. 151(1), Sch. 22 para. 38; S.I. 2012/2906, art. 2(t) Words in Sch. 7 para. 41 cross-heading substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(5)(c) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Words in s. 7(5)(b) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(2) S. 51(4) inserted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(4) Words in s. 86(2)(b) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(5)(a)(i) S. 86(2)(b)(ii) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(5)(a)(ii) Words in s. 86(4) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(5)(b) Words in s. 88(2) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(6)(a) (with Sch. 2 para. 19(3)) Words in s. 88(3)(b) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(6)(b) (with Sch. 2 para. 19(3)) Words in Sch. 4 para. 5(1) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(7)(a) Word in Sch. 4 para. 5(2)(a) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(7)(b) Word in Sch. 4 para. 5(2)(b) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(7)(c) Words in Sch. 5 para. 4(1) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(8)(a) Word in Sch. 5 para. 4(2)(a) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(8)(b) Word in Sch. 5 para. 4(2)(b) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(8)(c) Words in Sch. 5 para. 4(3) omitted (1.4.2013) by virtue of The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(8)(d) Sch. 5 para. 9(1)(b) substituted (1.4.2013) by The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(8)(e)(ii) Sch. 5 para. 9(1)(c)(d) omitted (1.4.2013) by virtue of The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(8)(e)(iii) Sch. 5 para. 9(2)(a) omitted (1.4.2013) by virtue of The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(8)(f) Sch. 5 para. 9(2)(b)(ii) omitted (1.4.2013) by virtue of The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602), art. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 60(8)(f) Word in Sch. 7 para. 18(2) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(2)(b) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Sch. 7 para. 18(1)(a) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(2)(a) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Word in Sch. 7 para. 21(7) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(2)(c) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Word in Sch. 7 para. 27(1) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(3)(a) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Word in Sch. 7 para. 28(1) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(3)(b) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Word in Sch. 7 para. 33(1)(a) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(4)(a) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Word in Sch. 7 para. 33(2)(a) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(4)(a) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Words in Sch. 7 para. 33(3) omitted (1.4.2013) by virtue of Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(4)(b) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Word in Sch. 7 para. 39(2)(a) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(5)(a) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Words in Sch. 7 para. 41(1) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(5)(b)(i) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Word in Sch. 7 para. 41(1) substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(5)(b)(ii) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. Words in Sch. 7 para. 46 substituted (1.4.2013) by Financial Services Act 2012 (c. 21), s. 122(3), Sch. 18 para. 127(5)(d) (with Sch. 20); S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch. S. 14(4)-(6) repealed (31.10.2013) by Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 (c. 9), s. 120, Sch. 10 Pt. 1 (with s. 97); S.I. 2013/2104, art. 3(d) Ss. 16, 17 repealed (31.10.2013) by Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 (c. 9), s. 120, Sch. 10 Pt. 1 (with s. 97); S.I. 2013/2104, art. 3(d) Ss. 18-18E substituted for s. 18 (31.10.2013) by Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 (c. 9), s. 120, Sch. 1 para. 4 (with s. 97); S.I. 2013/1814, art. 2(k) Words in s. 18E(1) substituted (7.10.2013) by Crime and Courts Act 2013, s. 61(2), Sch. 8 para. 186; S.I. 2013/1682, art. 3(v) Words in Sch. 7 para. 46 omitted (1.1.2014) by virtue of The Capital Requirements Regulations 2013 (S.I. 2013/3115), reg. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 44(4)(a) Words in Sch. 7 para. 46 inserted (1.1.2014) by The Capital Requirements Regulations 2013 (S.I. 2013/3115), reg. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 44(4)(b) Words in Sch. 7 para. 5(1) substituted (1.1.2014) by The Capital Requirements Regulations 2013 (S.I. 2013/3115), reg. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 44(2)(a) Words in Sch. 7 para. 7 omitted (1.1.2014) by virtue of The Capital Requirements Regulations 2013 (S.I. 2013/3115), reg. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 44(3)(a) Sch. 7 para. 33(1)(b) omitted (27.3.2014) by virtue of The Public Bodies (Merger of the Director of Public Prosecutions and the Director of Revenue and Customs Prosecutions) Order 2014 (S.I. 2014/834), art. 1(1), Sch. 2 para. 60 Word in Sch. 7 para. 18(1)(b) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(2)(a)(i) Sch. 7 para. 18(1)(c) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(2)(a)(ii) Sch. 7 para. 18(2)(c) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(2)(a)(iii) Word in Sch. 7 para. 18(3)(b) substituted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(2)(b) Word in Sch. 7 para. 23(1)(b) substituted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(2)(b) Word in Sch. 7 para. 24 substituted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(2)(b) Words in Sch. 7 para. 27(1) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(3) Words in Sch. 7 para. 28(1) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(3) Sch. 7 para. 33(1)(c) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(4)(a) Sch. 7 para. 33(2)(c) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(4)(b) Words in Sch. 7 para. 39(2)(a)(ii) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(5)(a)(i) Sch. 7 para. 39(2)(b) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(5)(a)(ii) Words in Sch. 7 para. 45(1) omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(5)(b) Words in Sch. 7 para. 46 omitted (26.7.2013 for specified purposes, 1.4.2014 in so far as not already in force) by virtue of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/1881), art. 1(2)(6), Sch. para. 15(5)(c) Words in s. 18D(2) substituted (13.5.2014) by Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014 (c. 12), s. 185(1), Sch. 11 para. 126(1) (with ss. 21, 33, 42, 58, 75, 93); S.I. 2014/949, art. 3, Sch. para. 23(m) Words in s. 18E(1) substituted (13.5.2014) by Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014 (c. 12), s. 185(1), Sch. 11 para. 126(2) (with ss. 21, 33, 42, 58, 75, 93); S.I. 2014/949, art. 3, Sch. para. 23(m) Words in Sch. 7 para. 6(1)(a) substituted (1.8.2014) by Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 2014 (c. 14), s. 154, Sch. 4 para. 139(2) (with Sch. 5) Words in Sch. 7 para. 6(1)(a)(i) substituted (1.8.2014) by Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 2014 (c. 14), s. 154, Sch. 4 para. 139(3) (with Sch. 5) Words in Sch. 7 para. 6(1)(a)(ii) substituted (1.8.2014) by Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 2014 (c. 14), s. 154, Sch. 4 para. 139(4) (with Sch. 5) S. 63(1)(ag) inserted (coming into force at 4.00 pm on 18.1.2016) by The Iran (European Union Financial Sanctions) Regulations 2016 (S.I. 2016/36), regs. 1(1), 19 (with regs. 18, 21) S. 63(1)(af) repealed (coming into force at 4.00 pm on 18.1.2016) by The Iran (European Union Financial Sanctions) Regulations 2016 (S.I. 2016/36), regs. 1(1), 20(2) (with regs. 18, 21) S. 63(1)(ae) substituted (22.9.2016) by The Al-Qaida (Asset-Freezing) (Amendment) Regulations 2016 (S.I. 2016/937), reg. 1, Sch. para. 1 Words in Sch. 5 para. 10(2) repealed (N.I.) (31.10.2016) by Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 2015 (c. 9), s. 106(2), Sch. 1 para. 135, Sch. 9 Pt. 1 (with Sch. 8 para. 1); S.R. 2016/387, art. 2(k)(m) (with art. 3) Sch. 7 para. 30(4A) inserted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 1.4.2017 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), ss. 145(5), 183(3)(5)(e) (with s. 145(10)); S.I. 2017/482, reg. 2 Words in Sch. 7 para. 30(5) inserted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 1.4.2017 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), ss. 145(6), 183(3)(5)(e) (with s. 145(10)); S.I. 2017/482, reg. 2 Sch. 7 para. 30A(1A) inserted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 1.4.2017 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), ss. 145(7), 183(3)(5)(e) (with s. 145(10)); S.I. 2017/482, reg. 2 Words in Sch. 7 para. 30A(2) inserted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 1.4.2017 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), ss. 145(8), 183(3)(5)(e) (with s. 145(10)); S.I. 2017/482, reg. 2 Words in Sch. 7 para. 31 substituted (31.1.2017 for specified purposes, 1.4.2017 in so far as not already in force) by Policing and Crime Act 2017 (c. 3), ss. 145(9), 183(3)(5)(e) (with s. 145(10)); S.I. 2017/482, reg. 2 Sch. 7 para. 45(3) substituted (26.6.2017) by The Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/692), reg. 1(2), Sch. 7 para. 7 (with regs. 8, 15) Words in Sch. 7 para. 7 substituted (29.6.2017 for specified purposes, 3.7.2017 for specified purposes, 31.7.2017 for specified purposes, 3.1.2018 in so far as not already in force) by The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/701), reg. 1(2)(3)(4)(6), Sch. 4 para. 11 (with reg. 7) S. 20(5) inserted (25.5.2018) by Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), s. 212(1), Sch. 19 para. 154(3) (with ss. 117, 209, 210); S.I. 2018/625, reg. 2(1)(g) Words in s. 20(2)(a) substituted (25.5.2018) by Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), s. 212(1), Sch. 19 para. 154(2) (with ss. 117, 209, 210); S.I. 2018/625, reg. 2(1)(g) Words in s. 20(2)(b) substituted (27.6.2018) by Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (c. 25), s. 272(1), Sch. 10 para. 22 (with Sch. 9 paras. 7, 8, 10); S.I. 2018/652, reg. 12(g)(iii) S. 69 repealed (30.8.2018) by Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (c. 25), s. 272(1), Sch. 10 Pt. 8 (with Sch. 9 paras. 7, 8, 10); S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(h)(ii) (with reg. 2(2)) S. 74 repealed (30.8.2018) by Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (c. 25), s. 272(1), Sch. 10 Pt. 8 (with Sch. 9 paras. 7, 8, 10); S.I. 2018/940, reg. 2(1)(h)(ii) (with reg. 2(2)) Ss. 66-68 applied (with modifications) (22.11.2018) by Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c. 13), s. 40(1)(2), 64(2) (with ss. 52(3), 53, 58); S.I. 2018/1213, reg. 2(b) S. 54(1) modified (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 24(6), 27(3) Words in s. 30 heading inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 8(2)(a), 27(3) (with s. 25(2)) Word in s. 48 heading inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(3)(a), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) Words in Sch. 2 inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 8(5), 27(3) (with s. 25(2)) Words in Sch. 2 inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 8(6)(a), 27(3) (with s. 25(2)) Words in Sch. 2 inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 8(6)(b), 27(3) (with s. 25(2)) Words in Sch. 2 inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 8(6)(c), 27(3) (with s. 25(2)) Words in Sch. 2 inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 8(6)(d), 27(3) (with s. 25(2)) Sch. 3A inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 1 (with s. 24(1)-(5)) S. 48A inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(4), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) S. 47(2)(da) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(2)(a), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) S. 47(2)(fa) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(2)(b), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) S. 47(2)(ga)-(gc) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(2)(c), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) S. 48(4A)-(4E) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(3)(b), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) S. 48(7) substituted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(3)(c), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) Words in s. 48(9) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 45 S. 56A and cross-heading inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 13, 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) Words in s. 18E(1)(f) substituted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 41 Words in s. 27(1)(a) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 42 S. 40(2)(c) and word inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 43(b) Word in s. 40(2)(a) omitted (12.4.2019) by virtue of Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 43(a) Words in s. 41(1)(a) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 44 Words in s. 42(1)(a) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 8(3), 27(3) (with s. 25(2)) S. 49(1A) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(5)(b), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) Words in s. 49(1) substituted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(5)(a), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) S. 49(1)(ba) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 46(2)(b) Word in s. 49(1)(b) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 46(2)(a) Words in s. 49(2) substituted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 46(3) S. 50(1)(ba) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 47(b) Word in s. 50(1)(b) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 47(a) Word in s. 54(1)(a) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 48(2)(a)(i) Words in s. 54(1)(a) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 48(2)(a)(ii) Word in s. 54(1)(b) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 48(2)(b)(i) Words in s. 54(1)(b) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 48(2)(b)(ii) Word in s. 54(4)(a) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 48(3)(a) Words in s. 54(4)(a) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 48(3)(b) Words in s. 55(5) substituted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 49(2)(a) Word in s. 55(5)(a) substituted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 49(2)(b) Word in s. 55(5)(b) substituted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 49(2)(c) Words in s. 55(6) substituted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 49(3) Words in s. 55(7) substituted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 49(4) S. 56(1)(b)(iia) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 50(b) Word in s. 56(1)(b)(ii) inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(3), Sch. 4 para. 50(a) Words in s. 60 inserted (12.4.2019) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), ss. 12(6), 27(3) (with s. 24(1)-(5)) S. 18A(1) modified (2.4.2020) by The Coronavirus (Retention of Fingerprints and DNA Profiles in the Interests of National Security) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/391), regs. 1, 3(2)(a)(ii) (with reg. 5) S. 18(8)(k) inserted (13.8.2020) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(2)(d), Sch. 4 para. 26; S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(i) Words in s. 18B(1) inserted (13.8.2020) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(2)(b), Sch. 2 para. 13(2); S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(e) Words in s. 18B(2) inserted (13.8.2020) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(2)(b), Sch. 2 para. 13(3); S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(e) Words in s. 18B(3)(b) substituted (13.8.2020) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(2)(b), Sch. 2 para. 13(4) (with s. 25(7)(8)); S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(e) S. 18B(4) inserted (13.8.2020) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(2)(b), Sch. 2 para. 13(5); S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(e) S. 18BA inserted (13.8.2020) by Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (c. 3), s. 27(2)(b), Sch. 2 para. 14; S.I. 2020/792, reg. 2(e) S. 18A(1) modified (1.10.2020) by The Coronavirus (Retention of Fingerprints and DNA Profiles in the Interests of National Security) (No. 2) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/973), regs. 1(1), 3(2)(a)(ii)(4) S. 30 modified (1.12.2020 immediately before the consolidation date (see 2020 c. 9, ss. 3, 5(2)(3) and 2020 c. 17, ss. 2, 416)) by Sentencing (Pre-consolidation Amendments) Act 2020 (c. 9), ss. 1, 5(2)(3); S.I. 2012/1236, reg. 2 Sch. 2 modified (1.12.2020 immediately before the consolidation date (see 2020 c. 9, ss. 3, 5(2)(3) and 2020 c. 17, ss. 2, 416)) by Sentencing (Pre-consolidation Amendments) Act 2020 (c. 9), ss. 1, 5(2)(3); S.I. 2012/1236, reg. 2 S. 42(1)(a) modified in part (1.12.2020 immediately before the consolidation date (see 2020 c. 9, ss. 3, 5(2)(3) and 2020 c. 17, ss. 2, 416)) by Sentencing (Pre-consolidation Amendments) Act 2020 (c. 9), ss. 1, 5(2)(3); S.I. 2012/1236, reg. 2 Words in s. 30 heading omitted (1.12.2020) by virtue of Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 273(2) (with Sch. 24 para. 447, Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 Sch. 2 repealed (E.W.) (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 29 (with ss. 413(4), 416(7), Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 S. 30 repealed (E.W.) (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 29 (with ss. 413(4), 416(7), Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 Words in s. 30(1) substituted (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 273(3) (with Sch. 24 para. 447, Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 S. 32 repealed (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 28 (with ss. 413(4)(5), 416(7), Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 S. 42(1)(za) inserted (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 274(2)(a) (with Sch. 24 para. 447, Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 Words in s. 42(1)(a) omitted (1.12.2020) by virtue of Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 274(2)(b) (with Sch. 24 para. 447, Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 Words in s. 42(2) substituted (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 274(3) (with Sch. 24 para. 447, Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 Words in s. 45(1)(a)(iv) inserted (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 275(a) (with Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 Words in s. 45(1)(a)(v) substituted (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 275(b) (with Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 Words in s. 45(1)(a)(via) inserted (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 275(c) (with Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 S. 75(2)(c) repealed (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 28 (with ss. 413(4)(5), 416(7), Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 Words in Sch. 6 para. 2(1) substituted (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 276(a) (with Sch. 24 para. 447, Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 Words in Sch. 6 para. 5(1)(a)(via) inserted (1.12.2020) by Sentencing Act 2020 (c. 17), s. 416(1), Sch. 24 para. 276(b) (with Sch. 27); S.I. 2020/1236, reg. 2 S. 28(2)(d) repealed (31.12.2020) by Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 (c. 13), s. 64(2), Sch. 3 para. 9 (with ss. 52(3), 53, 58); S.I. 2020/1535, reg. 3(e) S. 45(1)(a)(vib) inserted (30.4.2021) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), s. 50(1)(i), Sch. 13 para. 25 S. 45(2)(a)(iva) inserted (30.4.2021) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), s. 50(1)(i), Sch. 13 para. 59 S. 45(3)(a)(iva) inserted (30.4.2021) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), s. 50(1)(i), Sch. 13 para. 71 Sch. 1A inserted (29.6.2021 for specified purposes) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), s. 50(2)(a)(3)(a), Sch. 1 Pt. 2 Words in Sch. 2 heading inserted (29.6.2021) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), s. 50(2)(v), Sch. 13 para. 2(4)(a) Words in Sch. 2 omitted (29.6.2021) by virtue of Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), s. 50(2)(v), Sch. 13 para. 2(4)(b) Words in s. 30(1) substituted (29.6.2021 for specified purposes) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), ss. 1(5)(a), 50(2)(a)(3)(a) S. 30(5A)-(5C) inserted (29.6.2021 for specified purposes) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), ss. 1(5)(b), 50(2)(a)(3)(a) S. 30(6) omitted (29.6.2021 for specified purposes) by virtue of Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), ss. 1(5)(c), 50(2)(a)(3)(a) Words in s. 31(1) substituted (29.6.2021 for specified purposes) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), ss. 1(6)(a), 50(2)(a)(3)(a) S. 31(4A)-(4D) inserted (29.6.2021 for specified purposes) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), ss. 1(6)(b), 50(2)(a)(3)(a) S. 31(5) omitted (29.6.2021 for specified purposes) by virtue of Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), ss. 1(6)(c), 50(2)(a)(3)(a) S. 33 omitted (29.6.2021) by virtue of Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), s. 50(2)(v), Sch. 13 para. 2(2) S. 41(1)(f)(g) inserted (29.6.2021) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), ss. 42, 50(2)(s) S. 42(4) omitted (29.6.2021) by virtue of Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), s. 50(2)(v), Sch. 13 para. 2(3) S. 45(3)(a)(iiia) inserted (29.6.2021) by Counter-Terrorism and Sentencing Act 2021 (c. 11), s. 50(2)(v), Sch. 13 para. 65 Words in Sch. 2 inserted (29.7.2021) by Space Industry Act 2018 (c. 5), s. 70(1), Sch. 12 para. 29; S.I. 2021/817, reg. 2, Sch. para. 117 (with reg. 3) Words in Sch. 7 para. 7 substituted (1.1.2022) by The Financial Services Act 2021 (Prudential Regulation of Credit Institutions and Investment Firms) (Consequential Amendments and Miscellaneous Provisions) Regulations 2021 (S.I. 2021/1376), regs. 1(3), 8 Act modified (28.4.2022) by 2003 c. 44, s. 327(4E)(4F) (as inserted by Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 (c. 32), ss. 189(10), 208(4)(x)) Words in s. 76(2) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Words in Sch. 7 para. 30(4A)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Words in Sch. 7 para. 30A(1A)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Words in Sch. 7 para. 31(2)(a)(i) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(1), Sch. Pt. 1 S. 1(1)(bc)-(be) inserted (28.6.2022) by Police, Crime, Sentencing and Courts Act 2022 (c. 32), s. 208(5)(w), Sch. 19 para. 3 Words in Sch. 7 para. 5(2)(a) substituted (17.8.2022) by The Financial Services Act 2021 (Prudential Regulation of Credit Institutions and Investment Firms) (Consequential Amendments and Miscellaneous Provisions) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/838), regs. 1(2), 6(2) (with regs. 24-26) Words in Sch. 7 para. 7 omitted (17.8.2022) by virtue of The Financial Services Act 2021 (Prudential Regulation of Credit Institutions and Investment Firms) (Consequential Amendments and Miscellaneous Provisions) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/838), regs. 1(2), 6(3) (with regs. 24-26) Words in Sch. 7 para. 46 omitted (17.8.2022) by virtue of The Financial Services Act 2021 (Prudential Regulation of Credit Institutions and Investment Firms) (Consequential Amendments and Miscellaneous Provisions) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/838), regs. 1(2), 6(4) (with regs. 24-26) Words in s. 18E(1) inserted (1.5.2022 for specified purposes, 5.12.2022 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 5 para. 34; S.I. 2022/471, reg. 2(e); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 4 Words in s. 18E(1) inserted (1.5.2022 for specified purposes, 5.12.2022 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 5 para. 35; S.I. 2022/471, reg. 2(e); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 4 Words in s. 18E(1) inserted (1.5.2022 for specified purposes, 5.12.2022 in so far as not already in force) by Armed Forces Act 2021 (c. 35), s. 24(1), Sch. 5 para. 36; S.I. 2022/471, reg. 2(e); S.I. 2022/1095, reg. 4 S. 54(2A) inserted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 17(2) S. 54(3)(a) omitted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by virtue of The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 17(3) Sch. 5 para. 15(2A) inserted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 17(4) Sch. 5 para. 15(3)(a) omitted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by virtue of The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 17(5) Words in Sch. 7 para. 30(4A)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Words in Sch. 7 para. 30A(1A)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 Words in Sch. 7 para. 31(2)(a)(i) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(1), Sch. Pt. 1 S. 85(2)(aa) inserted (26.10.2023) by Energy Act 2023 (c. 52), ss. 307(4)(a), 334(2)(n) S. 86(2)(aa) inserted (26.10.2023) by Energy Act 2023 (c. 52), ss. 307(4)(b), 334(2)(n) S. 18(8)(l)(m) inserted (20.12.2023) by The National Security Act 2023 (Consequential Amendments of Primary Legislation) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/1386), reg. 1(2), Sch. para. 28 Sch. 7 para. 5(2)(e) substituted (1.1.2025) by The Insurance Distribution (Regulated Activities and Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1239), regs. 1(2), 4 Ss. 18AA, 18AB inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 128(3), 142(2)(f) (with s. 128(5)-(8)) Word in s. 18(4) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 128(2), 142(2)(f) S. 18A(7)-(9) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 127(5), 142(2)(e) (with s. 127(7)-(13)) Words in s. 18A(1) substituted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 127(3), 142(2)(e) (with s. 127(7)-(13)) Words in s. 18A(3) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(2), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) Words in s. 18A(4)(a) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 127(4), 142(2)(e) (with s. 127(7)-(13)) Word in s. 18BA(5)(a) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 128(4), 142(2)(f) S. 18E(5A) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(6), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) S. 18E(7A) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(10), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) Words in s. 18E(1) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(4), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) Words in s. 18E(1) substituted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 127(6)(a), 142(2)(e) (with s. 127(7)-(13)) Words in s. 18E(1) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 127(6)(b), 142(2)(e) (with s. 127(7)-(13)) Words in s. 18E(3) inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(5), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) Words in s. 18E(6)(a) renumbered as s. 18E(6)(a)(i) (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(7)(a), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) S. 18E(6)(a)(ii) and word inserted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(7)(b), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) Words in s. 18E(6)(b) omitted (19.6.2025) by virtue of Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(8)(a), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) Words in s. 18E(6)(b) substituted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(8)(b), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) Words in s. 18E(7) substituted (19.6.2025) by Data (Use and Access) Act 2025 (c. 18), ss. 126(9), 142(2)(d) (with s. 126(11)-(15)) Sch. 1A para. 4 renumbered as Sch. 1A para. 4(1) (29.6.2026) by Crime and Policing Act 2026 (c. 20), s. 255(3)(l), Sch. 27 para. 4(a) Sch. 1A para. 4(2) inserted (29.6.2026) by Crime and Policing Act 2026 (c. 20), s. 255(3)(l), Sch. 27 para. 4(b)